LECTURER IN LAW – KERALA COLLEGIATE EDUCATION – GOVT LAW COLLEGES

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 35/2015/OL
Category Code: 657/2012
Exam: Lecturer in Law
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 23-12-2015
Alphacode A
Question1:-Represent India is a famous work written by
A:-G.P. Pillai
B:-Balakrishna Pillai
C:-P. Krishna Pillai
D:-T.K. Madhavan
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-Name the play written by Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
A:-Thottilla
B:-Professor
C:-Jethakkal
D:-Nizhalukal
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question3:-In which district of Kerala firstly started the Kudumbasree project?
A:-Thiruvananthapuram
B:-Malappuram
C:-Alappuzha
D:-Kannur
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question4:-In which year Sahodaran Ayyappan became the editor of the magazine Yukthivadi
A:-1928
B:-1910
C:-1921
D:-1917
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question5:-Malayalam translation of Rubaiayat by G. Sankara Kuruppu is
A:-Vilasalathika
B:-Madanotsavam
C:-Jeevithotsavam
D:-Vilasalahari
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question6:-Who characterised Kumaranasan as the poet of renaissance?
A:-M. Leelavathi
B:-Thayat Sankaran
C:-Mundasseri
D:-Edasseri
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question7:-Janamma a socio reformer was the wife of ———– who was well-known social reformer and Renaissance leader.
A:-Chattambi Swamikal
B:-Vagbhadananda
C:-Brahmananda Shivayogi
D:-Kumaraguru
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question8:-Who started the magazine Adhakrithan?
A:-T.K. Madhavan
B:-K.P. Vallon
C:-Dr. Palpu
D:-Ayyankali
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question9:-Who was the chief architect of Kerala legislative assembly?
A:-Kanayi Kunjiraman
B:-Dhandapani
C:-Ram Swami Ayer
D:-Larry Baker
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question10:-Which article of Indian constitution is declare, India is a union of states?
A:-Article 2
B:-Article 1
C:-Article 5
D:-Article 3
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question11:-The research antagonistic to ex-post facto research is
A:-Experimental research
B:-Library researches
C:-Normative researches
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Evaluation performed prior to teaching is
A:-Summative evaluation
B:-Diagnostic evaluation
C:-Formative evaluation
D:-Criterion referenced evaluation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-Dioramas are
A:-2 dimensional aids
B:-3 dimensional aids
C:-Graphic aids
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Term used by qualitative researchers to refer to what might be labelled ”scientism”, which is the belief that all
true knowledge must be based on science is
A:-Post modernism
B:-Post structuralism
C:-Positivism
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-Generalisations and principles are provided and students are asked to verify them with examples is
A:-Inductive method
B:-Deductive method
C:-Project method
D:-Assignment method
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question16:-Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in
A:-Survey studies
B:-Historical studies
C:-Normative studies
D:-Experimental studies
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question17:-”Secondary schools of Ancient Rome” is an example for
A:-Descriptive research
B:-Historical research
C:-Normative research
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question18:-The highest level of level of teaching is
A:-Reflective level
B:-Understanding level
C:-Memory level
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question19:-Which one is not true of action research?
A:-Focussed on immediate application
B:-Emphasis on a problem
C:-Has universal validity
D:-Improve school practices
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question20:-Project method is based on the philosophy of
A:-Pragmatism
B:-Idealism
C:-Realism
D:-Naturalism
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-The word ”Secular” in the Preamble of the Constitution was inserted by the
A:-24th Constitutional Amendment
B:-40th Constitutional Amendment
C:-14th Constitutional Amendment
D:-42nd Constitutional Amendment
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question22:-Food Safety and Standards Act was passed in the year
A:-2004
B:-2006
C:-2010
D:-2013
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question23:-The right to silence is implicit in
A:-Article 14
B:-Article 21
C:-Article 19(1)(c)
D:-Article 19 (a)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question24:-‘Senior Citizen’ under the Maintenance of Parents and Senior Citizens Act means
A:-A person who has attained the age of 55 years or above
B:-A person who has attained the age of 60 years or above
C:-A person who has attained the age of 65 years or above
D:-A person who has attained the age of 70 years
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question25:-The right to property is a
A:-Fundamental right
B:-Human right
C:-Common law right
D:-Constitutional right
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-”Work place” as defined in the sexual harassment at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act
2013 includes a ‘dwelling place or house’
A:-True
B:-False
C:-Partially true
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-The concept of ‘Welfare State’ is envisaged under
A:-Directive principles of state policy
B:-Fundamental rights
C:-Fundamental duties
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question28:-The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the
A:-Prime Minister
B:-Parliament
C:-President
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) aims at providing atleast ——— of guaranteed
wage employment to every household with adult workers willing to do unskilled manual work.
A:-80 days
B:-100 days
C:-six months
D:-one year
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-The Protection of Women from domestic violence was enacted in the year
A:-2006
B:-2012
C:-2005
D:-2008
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-What will happen if a person who had his domicile in the territory of India and who was born in the territory of
India after commencement of the Constitution voluntarily acquires the citizenship of any foreign state?
A:-He shall be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 8
B:-He shall be deemed to have dual citizenship
C:-He shall continue to be a citizen of India subject to the provisions of any law made by parliament
D:-He shall lose his Indian citizenship
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-The members of the Constituent Assembly were
A:-Nominated by the government
B:-Indirectly elected by Provincial Assemblies
C:-Directly elected by people
D:-Selected representatives of the princely states
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question33:-The Fundamental Right to Freedom guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India is available to
A:-All persons
B:-All persons within the territory of India
C:-All citizens of India
D:-All persons resident in India
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question34:-In which of the following cases decided by the Supreme Court of India, it was held that ‘Right to Life does not
include Right to Die’?
A:-Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab [(1996) 2 SCC 648]
B:-P. Rthinam vs. Union of India [(1994) 3 SCC 394]
C:-Mithu vs. State of Punjab [(1983) 2 SCC 277]
D:-K.M. Nanavati vs. State of Maharashtra [AIR 1962 SC 605]
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its
recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within a period of fourteen days
A:-It shall be deemed to have been lapsed at the expiration of the said period of fourteen days
B:-It shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period of fourteen days in the
form in which it was passed by the House of the People
C:-A joint sitting of both the Houses shall be held and the Bill passed thereat shall be deemed to have been passed by
both the Houses
D:-The Bill will be transmitted once again to the Council of States for its reconsideration
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question36:-The satisfaction contemplated by Article 356 of the Constitution is in reality
A:-The subjective satisfaction of the Union Council of Ministers
B:-The subjective satisfaction of the President of India
C:-The subjective satisfaction of the Governor of the State
D:-The objective satisfaction of the Supreme Court
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question37:-The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280
A:-To make recommendations to the President as to the distribution between the Union and the States of the net
proceeds of taxes
B:-To make recommendations to the Union Council of Ministers in formulating the financial policies of the Government
of India
C:-To make recommendations to the Union Council of Ministers in evolving a tax-structure conducive to the economic
development of India
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India, providing for Fundamental Rights, cannot be suspended
during Emergency?
A:-Articles 14 and 21
B:-Articles 14, 20 and 21
C:-Articles 20 and 21
D:-Articles 14, 21 and 22
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office
A:-By the President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India on the ground of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity
B:-By the Supreme Court of India on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
C:-By two-third majority of both the Houses of Parliament on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
D:-The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his office before expiry of his term of office
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by:
A:-Ten members of Lok Sabha
B:-One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha
C:-One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha
D:-One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, was enacted by the Parliament under :
A:-Article 21 of the Constitution of India
B:-Article 253 of the Constitution of India
C:-Article 368 of the Constitution of India
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question42:-The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is :
A:-Directive Principle of State Policy
B:-National Policy adopted on the basis of International obligations
C:-Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
D:-Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a citizen
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-What percentage of area in the plain is recommended to be under forest as per the National Forest Policy?
A:-33 percent
B:-25 percent
C:-21 percent
D:-10 percent
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question44:-India’s Biological Diversity (BD) Act was enacted with the objective of :
A:-Conservation of biological diversity
B:-Sustainable use of the components of biological diversity
C:-Equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of biological resources
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-The agency empowered to lay down the standards for control of pollution of air, water and noise is :
A:-Central Pollution Control Board
B:-Central Pollution Control Agency
C:-Ministry of Environment and Forests
D:-The National Green Tribunal
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question46:-The Doctrine of Absolute Liability was evolved in :
A:-Taj Trapezium case [(1997) 2 SCC 353]
B:-Oleum Gas Leak case [AIR 1987 SC 1086]
C:-Vellore case [(1996) 5 SCC 647]
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-Violations of the provisions of which one of the following statutes CANNOT be challenged before the National
Green Tribunal?
A:-The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
B:-The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
C:-The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
D:-The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Under which of the following circumstances, the Chief Wildlife Warden may grant permit for hunting wild
animals as per the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
A:-When any wild animal specified in Schedule 1 has become as disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery
B:-For the purpose of collection of specimens for museums and similar institutions
C:-If he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Sch. II, Sch. III or Sch. IV has become dangerous to standing crops
on any land
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-Which of the following is an “animal” as defined under section 2(1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
A:-A bird
B:-The egg of a bird
C:-A crocodile
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-A person who is not a citizen of India requires previous approval of the National Biodiversity Authority for obtaining
access to biological diversity occurring in India
B:-The National Biodiversity Authority may impose benefit sharing fee or royalty or both for the commercial utilization
of any invention based on any research or information on a biological resource obtained from India
C:-At the WTO, India’s clear position regarding IPR on living matter is “no patents on life forms”
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question51:-“Lay-off” may be for a period of :
A:-One day only
B:-Maximum seven days
C:-Maximum one month
D:-No maximum time limit prescribed
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question52:-An agreement entered into by collective bargaining under threat of strike is :
A:-Voidable under section 15 of the Indian Contract Act
B:-Enforceable under section 18 of the Trade Unions Act
C:-Enforceable under section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act
D:-Void under section 23 of the Indian Contract Act
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Who among the following is a “dependent” of a deceased insured person as defined under section 2(6-A) of the
Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
A:-An adopted son who has attained the age of twenty-two years
B:-A widowed mother
C:-A minor brother who was partly dependent on the earnings of the insured person at the time of his death
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-“Industrial dispute” is a dispute between :
A:-Employer and workmen
B:-Workmen and workmen
C:-Employers and employers
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-Minimum wages is fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 on the basis of :
A:-Cost of Living Index
B:-Consumer Price Index
C:-Cost Inflation Index
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-Who is an ‘Adolescent’ under the Factories Act, 1948?
A:-Who has completed 14 years of age
B:-Who has completed 17 years of age
C:-Who is below 18 years of age
D:-Who has completed 15 years but below 18 years of age
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question57:-Which of the following comes within the definition of ‘strike’ under section 2(q) of the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947?
A:-Hunger strike
B:-Gherao
C:-Pen down or tool down strike
D:-Work-to-Rule strike
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-If any question arises as to the application or interpretation of a certified Standing Order, it may be referred to :
A:-The High Court
B:-The District Court
C:-The Specified Labour Court
D:-The Appellate Authority
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-What is meant by ‘bonus’ for the purposes of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
A:-Profit bonus
B:-Customary bonus
C:-Contractual bonus
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question60:-Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-Overtime allowance comes within the meaning of “salary or wage” under section 2(21) of the Payment of Bonus Act
B:-Branches of an establishment are to be treated as part of the same establishment for the purpose of computation of
bonus
C:-Bonus paid to trainees (not apprentices) is admissible deduction under the Income-Tax Act
D:-Employees working on part-time basis are eligible for bonus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question61:-Doctrine of “Autrefois Acquit” and “Autrefois Convict” is also known as :
A:-Rule against “self-incrimination”
B:-Rule against “double jeopardy”
C:-Rule against “vicarious criminal liability”
D:-Rule against “retrospective operation”
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another
person, is said to do that thing :
A:-“Dishonestly”
B:-“Fraudulently”
C:-“Negligently”
D:-“Intentionally”
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-A person who is habitually associated with any other or others for the purpose of committing robbery or
child-stealing by means of or accompanied with murder, is called :
A:-A ‘dacoit’
B:-A ‘thug’
C:-A ‘robber’
D:-A ‘thief’
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question64:-‘A’, threatens to publish a defamatory statement concerning ‘B’ unless ‘B’ gives him money. He thus induces ‘B’
to give him money. What is the offence, if any, committed by ‘A’?
A:-Attempt to commit defamation
B:-Criminal intimidation
C:-Extortion
D:-No offence is committed
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-A conditional order for removal of nuisance can be made by :
A:-The High Court
B:-The Sessions Court
C:-A Sub-divisional Magistrate
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question66:-The power to transfer criminal cases from one court to another court is conferred upon :
A:-The Supreme Court
B:-The High Court
C:-The Court of Session
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question67:-A question of ‘foreign law’ is a question of :
A:-Law
B:-Fact
C:-Mixed question of law and fact
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question68:-“A fact is not relevant under the law of evidence merely because it is similar to a fact in issue”. But, a similar
fact may be proved for the purpose of :
A:-Establishing the identity of the accused
B:-Establishing a particular state of mind of the accused
C:-Overthrowing the defence of accident
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-An admission contained in a letter marked “without prejudice” is NOT relevant :
A:-In civil cases
B:-In criminal cases
C:-Both in civil and criminal cases
D:-Neither in civil nor in criminal cases
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in open court. Such evidence under section 119
of the Indian Evidence Act is :
A:-Documentary evidence
B:-Oral evidence
C:-Secondary evidence
D:-Material evidence
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-Which of the following is NOT a quasi-judicial function?
A:-Disciplinary proceedings against students
B:-Granting or withholding sanction by the Advocate General u/s 92 of C.P.C.
C:-Determination of citizenship
D:-Forfeiture of pension and gratuity
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-Which one of the following statements is false?
A:-The legislative function is primarily responsible for making, unmaking and amending the law
B:-The judiciary maintains order and manages public services
C:-The parliament, the Executive, and the Courts each have their distinct and largely exclusive domain
D:-The executive implements the law enacted by the legislature
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question73:-According to the “No Evidence Rule”
A:-No evidence is necessary in the case of administrative adjudication
B:-In an administrative adjudication, if there is some evidence, the decision is valid no matter it may not be any
evidence at all in accordance with accepted norms
C:-In an administrative adjudication, if statements of witnesses are not recorded as per law, the decision is liable to be
set aside on the basis of ‘no evidence rule’
D:-No evidence should be taken behind the back of a contesting party
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-On which of the following grounds, the validity of delegated legislation CANNOT be challenged?
A:-Unreasonableness
B:-Arbitrariness
C:-Mala fides
D:-Violation of the principles of natural justice
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question75:-A superior police officer was appointed to conduct a departmental inquiry against a constable. In order to
contradict the testimony of a witness, the presiding officer offered himself as a witness. The inquiry is vitiated on the ground
of :
A:-Departmental bias
B:-Subject matter bias
C:-Personal bias
D:-Preconceived notion bias
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question76:-In which of the following cases, constitutionality of delegated legislation in India was upheld by the Supreme
Court?
A:-A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras [AIR 1950 SC 27]
B:-In re Delhi Laws Act case [AIR 1951 SC 332]
C:-Dhakeshwari Cotton Mills Ltd. v. C.I.T. [AIR 1955 SC 65]
D:-Jatinndra Nath Gupta v. Province of Bihar [AIR 1949 FC 175]
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question77:-Which one of the following statements is true?
A:-The courts will never intervene where a statute confers a subjective discretionary power
B:-If the statute does not specify the purposes for which discretion may be exercised, the court cannot intervene
C:-If a statute specifies the purposes for which a discretionary power may be exercised the courts will allow a public
authority to act for a different purpose if this is in the public interest
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-The idea of “post-decisional hearing” was developed by the Supreme Court in :
A:-Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [AIR 1978 SC 597]
B:-Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala [AIR 1973 SC 1461]
C:-B.S. Yadav v. State of Haryana [AIR 1981 SC 561]
D:-Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India [AIR 1980 SC 1789]
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question79:-On which of the following grounds a writ of “certiorari” may be issued?
A:-Lack of jurisdiction
B:-Abuse of jurisdiction
C:-Violation of the principles of natural justice
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-Under Indian law, the State is :
A:-Not bound by a statutory provision unless it is made applicable to it by clear and express language
B:-Not bound by a statutory provision unless it is made applicable to it expressly or by necessary implication
C:-Bound by a statutory provision unless excluded by clear and express language
D:-Bound by a statutory provision unless excluded either expressly or by necessary implication language
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question81:-The registration of GI under the provisions of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999 shall be for a period of
A:-10 years
B:-15 years
C:-25 years
D:-60 years
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question82:-Which of the following is FALSE with regard to copyright law in India?
A:-There can be no copyright in an idea
B:-Acquisition of copyright is automatic and it does not require any formality
C:-The author retains moral rights even if he assigns his copyright to someone else
D:-Generally in the case of literary or musical works, the term of copyright is the life of the author plus 50 years
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question83:-Which one of the following is non-patentable invention?
A:-Micro-biological process for production of animals
B:-A method of agriculture or horticulture
C:-A method of testing for diagnosis
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-Which among the following is NOT a ground of ‘opposition’ included under section 25(1) of the Patents Act?
A:-The complete specification does not disclose or wrongly mentions the source or geographical origin of biological
material used for the invention
B:-The subject of any claim of the complete specification is not an invention within the meaning of the Act, or is not
patentable under the Act
C:-The request for examination pursuant to the filing of the complete specification has not been made by the applicant
D:-The applicant has failed to disclose to the Controller the information required under section 8 of the Act
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-A complete patent specification shall disclose :
A:-All the methods are performing the invention
B:-All anticipated use of the invention
C:-The best method of performing the invention
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question86:-Compulsory License for export under Indian Patents Act is for :
A:-Medicinal plants
B:-Pharmaceutical products
C:-Genetic modified micro organism
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question87:-Passing off is a :
A:-Tort
B:-Breach of Contract
C:-Crime
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
A:-Under the Designs Act, 2000, classification is based on the material of which the article is made
B:-‘Novelty’ under the Designs Act, is judged based on prior publication of an article not only in India but also in other
countries
C:-A ‘Design’ registration can be restored within a year from its last date of expiry
D:-District Court has power to transfer a case to the High Court in the event the validity of ‘Design’ registration is
challenged
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question89:-Which of the following is NOT a criterion for registration under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’
Rights Act, 2001?
A:-Novelty
B:-Utility
C:-Uniformity
D:-Stability
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question90:-In a tort action for defamation, which of the following statements is correct, concerning information posted on
the internet?
A:-The courts would regard the wrong to constitute slander
B:-The International Law will apply
C:-One of the initial problems to be dealt with is jurisdiction
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question91:-The “Indian Computer Emergency Response Team” serves as :
A:-The Cyber Regulations Advisory Authority
B:-The National Nodal Agency in respect of Critical Information Infrastructure Protection
C:-The National Agency for incident response
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question92:-A “Secure System”, under the provisions of the Information Technology Act means computer hardware,
software and procedure that :
A:-are reasonably secure from unauthorized access and misuse
B:-provide a reasonable level of reliability and correct operation
C:-are reasonably suited to performing the intended functions
D:-all of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question93:-Domestic violence is essentially a
A:-Private issue for which the offender is criminally liable
B:-Public issue for which the offender is criminally liable
C:-Human Rights issue for which the State has responsibility on the basis of due diligence standard
D:-Civil wrong to be dealt with by Civil Courts within the domestic jurisdiction
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-Which of the following change was brought in the position of women after the 2005 Amendment to the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956?
A:-In a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, the daughter of a coparcener shall, by birth, become a
coparcener in her own right in the same manner as the son and shall also have the same rights in the coparcenary property
as she would have had if she had been a son
B:-The disability on female heirs to ask for partition in respect of a dwelling house wholly occupied by a joint family
until the male heirs choose to divide their respective shares therein has been removed
C:-Both the above
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question95:-Which one of the following statements correctly describes the role of a “mediator”?
A:-Helps the parties to reach a settlement
B:-Makes a settlement binding on the parties
C:-Chooses between the alternatives suggested by the parties
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on :
A:-International Commercial Arbitration Guidelines
B:-UNCITRAL Model Law
C:-Constitution of India
D:-Report of the Lok Sabha Committee on Arbitration and Conciliation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-The form of Alternate Dispute Resolution wherein the parties hire someone to review the evidence and make a
decision that is binding upon the parties is called :
A:-Arbitration
B:-Conciliation
C:-Mediation
D:-Negotiation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question98:-An arbitration agreement under section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 :
A:-Shall be in writing
B:-Shall be in writing and registered
C:-May be oral
D:-No agreement is necessary
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-The provisions relating to which of the following has been introduced for the first time in India by the
Companies Act, 2013?
A:-One person company
B:-Electronic voting
C:-Participation in Board meetings through video conferencing
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-Which school of jurisprudence stresses on the “politics of law” so as to be described as “legal leftism”?
A:-American Realism
B:-Critical Legal Studies Movement
C:-Liberal Legalism
D:-Feminist Legal Criticism
Correct Answer:- Option-B