Assistant Insurance Medical Officer/ Assistant Surgeon/ Casuality Medical Officer- Insurance Medical Service, Health Services

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 12/2021/OL
Category Code: 264/2020
Exam: Assistant Insurance Medical Officer/ Assistant Surgeon/ Casuality Medical Officer
Date of Test 26-10-2021
Department Insurance Medical Service, Health Services
Alphacode A
Question1:-How many pairs of spinal nerves are present ?
A:-31
B:-32
C:-33
D:-34
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-Which of the following disorder follows autosomal recessive inheritance ?
A:-Achondroplasia
B:-Albinism
C:-Haemophilia
D:-Osteogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question3:-Which of the following is not a synovial joint ?
A:-Sternoclavicular
B:-Superior radioulnar
C:-Inferior tibiofibular
D:-Calcaneocuboid
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question4:-Which of the following nerves carry taste sensation from anterior 2
3
��
of tongue ?
A:-Glossopharyngeal
B:-Lingual
C:-Hypoglossal
D:-Chorda tympani
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Active form of glucose involved in glycogen synthesis
A:-CTP Glucose
B:-UDP Glucose
C:-CMP Glucose
D:-UMP Glucose
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-An enzyme composed of both protein and RNA
A:-Telomerase
B:-RNA polymerase
C:-DNA polymerase
D:-Reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question7:-Hyperuricemia not seen in
A:-Tumor lysis syndrome
B:-von Gierke’s disease
C:-Lesch Nyhan syndrome
D:-Xanthine oxidase deficiency
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question8:-Find out the mismatch.
A:-PCR-Amplification of DNA
B:-Western blotting-Detection of RNA
C:-Southern blotting-Detection of DNA
D:-Northern blotting-Detection of RNA
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question9:-Hormone concerned with reabsorption of water in the renal tubule
A:-ADH
B:-Vasopressin
C:-Aldosterone
D:-Renin
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question10:-Normal tidal volume
A:-750 ml
B:-1000 ml
C:-500 ml
D:-1200 ml
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Hemophilia is caused by deficiency of which factor ?
A:-Factor V
B:-Factor VII
C:-Factor X
D:-Factor VIII
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question12:-Gigantism is caused by hyper secretion of which hormone ?
A:-Prolactin
B:-Growth hormone
C:-Thyroid hormone
D:-Glucocorticoids
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-Bluish black discolouration of a bruise is due to the presence of
A:-haemoglobin
B:-haemosiderin
C:-haematoidin
D:-biliverdin
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-The depth of a stab wound usually corresponds with the following dimension of the offending weapon
A:-length of the blade
B:-width of the blade
C:-breadth of the blade
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question15:-Which of the following snake is having myotoxic venom ?
A:-common cobra
B:-viper
C:-coral snake
D:-sea snake
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question16:-Amanita phalloides is also known as
A:-blue rocket
B:-deadly night shade
C:-destroying angel
D:-worm wood
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question17:-The type of hypersensitivity reaction in myasthenia gravis is
A:-Type I
B:-Type II
C:-Type III
D:-Type IV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question18:-Causative agent of melioidosis
A:-Burkholderia pseudomallei
B:-Burkholderia cepacia
C:-Burkholderia mallei
D:-Stenotrophomonas maltophila
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question19:-Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA
A:-Conjugation
B:-Transduction
C:-Transformation
D:-Mutation
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question20:-Which of the following infect hair, skin and nails ?
A:-Trichophyton
B:-Microsporum
C:-Epidermophyton
D:-Trichosporon
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-Red infarct is seen in
A:-Kidney
B:-Lung
C:-Spleen
D:-Brain
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question22:-All of the following are germ cell tumors of testis except
A:-Leydig cell tumor
B:-Seminoma
C:-Embryonal carcinoma
D:-Endodermal sinus tumor
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-Psammoma bodies are not found in
A:-Leiomyoma
B:-Serous papillary cystadeno carcinoma ovary
C:-Meningioma
D:-Papillary carcinoma thyroid
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-Which of the following is true regarding Metaplasia ?
A:-Ectopic rest of normal tissue
B:-Disordered cell growth pattern
C:-Is an irreversible change
D:-Involves epithelial and mesenchymal tissues
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-Which NSAID among the following is a prodrug ?
A:-Nimesulide
B:-Nabumetone
C:-Meloxicam
D:-Ketorolac
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-Monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of Bronchial asthma
A:-Omalizumab
B:-Bevacizumab
C:-Ranibizumab
D:-Rituximab
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-Sulfonylurea used for the treatment of Diabetes Mellitus having antiplatelet action
A:-Glibenclamide
B:-Glipizide
C:-Glimepiride
D:-Gliclazide
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question28:-Which among the following is a Noradrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant (NaSSA) ?
A:-Venlafaxine
B:-Duloxetine
C:-Mirtazapine
D:-Amineptine
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-Sociogram is related to
A:-Panel discussion
B:-Group discussion
C:-Workshop
D:-Symposium
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-The 3 tier structure of Panchayati Raj include all except
A:-Panchayat
B:-Zilla Parishad
C:-Gram Panchayat
D:-Panchayat Samiti
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-All are headquarters of WHO region except
A:-Manila
B:-New Delhi
C:-Copenhagen
D:-South Africa
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-Handwashing is an example of
A:-Precurrent disinfection
B:-Terminal disinfection
C:-Concurrent disinfection
D:-Sterilization
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-Blue-Yellow colour vision anomalies tested by
i) Homgren Wools
ii) Ishiharas isochromatic charts
iii) Handy-Rand-Ritler
iv) Pickford Nicholson anomaloscope
A:-Only (i and iii)
B:-Only (ii and iii)
C:-Only (iii and iv)
D:-Only (i and iv)
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question34:-A patient complaining of defective vision and on fundoscopy shows bilateral disc oedema. What will do first ?
A:-Assess pupil
B:-Check BP
C:-Field test
D:-Imaging
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question35:-Economic Blindness – following which statement is correct ?
A:-Vision in better eye < 6/60 to 3/60 B:-Vision in better eye < 3/60 to 1/60 C:-Vision in better eye < 1/60 to PL D:-Vision in better eye < 6/18 to 6/60 Correct Answer:- Option-A Question36:-"Eye Banking" is A:-Collection of Cornea and Keratoplasty B:-Enucleation and storage of cornea C:-Collection, storage and distribution of cornea D:-Collection, storage and research of cornea Correct Answer:- Option-C Question37:-Waters view for paranasal I sinus is A:-Occipitomental view B:-Occipitofrontal view C:-Submento vertical view D:-Oblique posteroanterior view Correct Answer:- Option-A Question38:-Which is the odd one ? A:-Submucus resection B:-Antrochoanal polyp C:-Killian's Dehiscence D:-Osteomeatal complex Correct Answer:- Option-D Question39:-Objective tinnitus seen in A:-Aminoglycoside toxicity B:-Acoustic trauma C:-Otosclerosis D:-Palatal myoclonus Correct Answer:- Option-D Question40:-Clinical triads to diagnose Quinsy include all except A:-Trismus B:-Halitosis C:-Tender jugulodigastric node D:-Edema of soft palate Correct Answer:- Option-B Question41:-Investigations done in Plummer Vinson syndrome include all except A:-Serum Ferritin B:-Peripheral smear C:-Bone marrow D:-Videofluroscopy Correct Answer:- Option-C Question42:-Definition of FUO (PUO) includes i) Fever >38.3° C on at least two occasions
ii) Illness duration of ≥ 3 weeks
iii) No known immunocompromised state
iv) Diagnosis remain uncertain after a thorough history taking, physical examination and following obligatory investigations like ESR, CRP, LFT, ANA, Electrolytes, CXR, LDH etc.
A:-Only (i) and (ii)
B:-Only (i) and (iii)
C:-Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
D:-All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-Raynaud’s phenomenon is seen in Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome associated with the use of which of the following drug ?
A:-Mitomicine
B:-Bleomicin
C:-Gemcitabine
D:-VEGF inhibitors
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question44:-MRI findings of mesial temporal lobe epilepsy syndrome includes
i) Small temporal lobe
ii) Enlarged temporal horn
iii) Small hippocampus with increased signal on T2 weighted sequences
A:-Only (i)
B:-Only (i) and (ii)
C:-Only (ii)
D:-All of the above (i, ii, iii)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-Which of the following is not included in the classification criteria of newly presenting patients with symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis ?
A:-X-ray of joints
B:-Acute phase reactants
C:-Serology
D:-Joint involvement
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question46:-Thyroid Acropachy is strongly associated with all of the following except
A:-Periorbital oedema
B:-Conjunctival injection
C:-Microcytic Anemia
D:-Pretibial myxedema
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question47:-MODY 1 is due to genetic mutation in the following gene
A:-HNF 1𝛼
B:-HNF 4𝛼
C:-Glucokinase
D:-HNF 1β
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-JAK inhibitor used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis is
A:-Anakinra
B:-Etanercept
C:-Tofacitinib
D:-Abatacept
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-Commonest cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Childhood is
A:-Minimal Change Disease
B:-Membranous Nephropathy
C:-IgA Nephropathy
D:-Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question50:-MELD Scoring system uses all the following variables except
A:-INR
B:-Bilirubin level
C:-Creatinine
D:-Albumin
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question51:-Anti GQ1b antibodies are strongly associated with
A:-AMAN
B:-AMSAN
C:-Miller Fisher Syndrome
D:-CIDP
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-The imaging investigation of choice for diagnosis of diffuse axonal injury is
A:-PET-CT
B:-Computed Tomography (CT)
C:-Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
D:-Colour doppler
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Which of the following statements is incorrect about fibromuscular dysplasia ?
A:-It typically occurs in young women
B:-It is the most common cause of non atheromatous renal artery stenosis
C:-The proximal third of the renal artery is the site generally involved
D:-Shows ‘string of beads’ sign on angiography
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-The most characteristic sign of breast cancer on mammographic images
A:-Tram-track calcification
B:-‘Pop corn’ pattern of calcification
C:-Macrocalcification
D:-Clustered microcalcification
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-Regarding imaging of multiple myeloma lesions, which of the following statements are
correct ?
i) Skull radiographs show punched out lytic lesions
ii) Characteristically involves pedicles of vertebrae
iii) Mandible is more commonly involved in myeloma than in metastases
iv) Skeletal survey is better investigation than scintigraphy to visualise the lesions in multiple
myeloma
A:-Statements (i) and (iv)
B:-Statements (ii) and (iii)
C:-Statements (i) and (ii)
D:-Statements (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-On CT scan images typical lesions of hepatocellular carcinoma show peak contrast enhancement in
A:-Portal venous phase
B:-Hepatic arterial phase
C:-Hepatic venous phase
D:-Biliary excretory phase
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-What percentage of nerve trunk damage is required to clinically manifest with features of nerve damage ?
A:-10%
B:-30%
C:-50%
D:-60%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question58:-CDC recommended regime of acute proctitis includes
A:-Cefixime 400 mg orally single dose plus Azithromycin 1 gm orally single dose
B:-Azithromycin 1 gm orally single dose plus Doxycycline 100 mg orally 2 times/day for 21 days
C:-Ceftriaxone 500 mg im single does plus Doxycycline 100 mg orally 2 times/day for 7 days
D:-Ceftriaxone 500 mg im single dose plus Azithromycin 1 gm orally single dose
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-Which of the following is not a potential side effect of IVIG ?
A:-Aseptic meningitis
B:-Bone marrow suppression
C:-Deep vein thrombosis
D:-Pulmonary emboli
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-Arao Perkin bodies are seen in
(1) Androgenetic alopecia
(2) Normal hair cycle
(3) Trichothiodystrophy
A:-Only (1)
B:-Only (2)
C:-Only (3)
D:-Only (1) and (2)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-A patient sustained an injury to the oral cavity, as a result of road traffic accident. On examination, there was a lacerated wound of 5 × 2 centimeters, over the inner
aspect of cheeck. Which type of needle would be ideal to suture such a wound.
A:-J shaped needle
B:-¼ circle needle
C:-Compound curvature needle
D:-3
8
circle needle
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question62:-30 year old female diagnosed to have thymoma, underwent thymectomy and it was reported as stage 3 by Masoka thymoma Staging system. What does stage 3 of this
staging mean ?
A:-Macroscopic invasion of neighboring organs
B:-Pleural or pericardial dissemination
C:-Macroscopic invasion into surrounding fatty tissue or mediastinal pleura
D:-Microscopically completely encapsulated
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-A 28 year old male who was on treatment for acid peptic disease, underwent a follow up oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. During the procedure an iatrogenic perforation
occurred in the cervical oesophagus. The best management option for this case would be
A:-Neck exploration and closure of perforation
B:-Conservative management
C:-Esophageal stenting
D:-VATS
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question64:-A 68 year old hypertensive, diabetic male was bedridden following a cerebral vascular accident. He developed a pressure sore after two months. Which is the most
frequent site for developing such an ulcer ?
A:-Sacrum
B:-Greater trochanter
C:-Heel
D:-Ischium
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question65:-A nineteen year old male presented to the emergency department with the history of low grade fever, right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting and anorexia. On
palpation, deep tenderness was present in loin. Abdominal rigidity was absent even on deep palpation, but rigidity to quadratus lumborum was present and a clinical diagnosis of acute
appendicitis was made. What is the most probable position of the appendix according to the above clinical scenario ?
A:-Pelvic
B:-Post ileal
C:-Retrocaecal
D:-Para caecal
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question66:-Meralgia paresthetica is due to affection of
A:-Median nerve
B:-Sural nerve
C:-Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
D:-Axillary nerve
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question67:-Most common site of origin of adamantinoma
A:-Hard palate
B:-Mandible near molar teeth
C:-Middle alveolar margin
D:-Mandible near symphysis pubis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question68:-MIC-2 mutation is associated with
A:-Ewing’s sarcoma
B:-Osteosarcoma
C:-Chondroblastoma
D:-Adamantinoma
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question69:-Type VI Rang’s injury include
A:-Intra articular fracture
B:-Perichondral ring injury
C:-Thurston-Holland sign
D:-Open injury with loss of physis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question70:-A child with Cerebral palsy,
Walks with assistive mobility devices indoors and outdoors on level surfaces
May be able to climb stairs using a railing
May propel a manual wheelchair and need assistance for long distances on uneven surfaces. His percentage of permanent impairment in relation to whole body is
A:-40-50%
B:-51-60%
C:-61-79%
D:-80% or more
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-A person with head injury shows goal directed behavior with assistance. Inconsistent orientation to time and place. Retention span and recent memory are impaired. He
consistently follows simple directions. Which stage of Rancho Los Amigos staging does he belongs to
A:-Confused appropriate
B:-Confused nonagitated
C:-Automatic appropriate
D:-Purposeful appropriate
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question72:-Statement 1 – Therapeutic Ultrasound waves of higher frequency 3 MHz is used for superficial tissues.
Statement 2 – Penetration of Ultrasound is directly proportional to frequency.
A:-Statement 1 is correct
B:-Statement 2 is correct
C:-Both statements are correct
D:-Both statements are wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-A Unilateral amputee of age 60 yrs. is a potential limited community ambulator and has the ability for ambulation and traverse environmental barriers such as curbs,
stairs or uneven surfaces. What is the K level ?
A:-K1
B:-K2
C:-K3
D:-K4
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-Which is not a component of Intraoperative RT ?
A:-IO ERT
B:-HDR-IO RT
C:-KU-IO RT
D:-IO Proton RT
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question75:-Which is a II generation alkylating agent ?
A:-Temozolomide
B:-Cyclophosphamide
C:-Bendamustine
D:-Ifosfamide
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question76:-Reese Ellsworth classification is for
A:-Retinoblastoma
B:-Melanoma
C:-Papillary ca thyroid
D:-Medulloblastoma
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-The location of the GE junction can be accurately defined histologically as
A:-squamo columnar junction
B:-Adenosquamous junction
C:-goblet cell junction
D:-Poikilocyte
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-Patients with long standing severe reflux have how much risk of developing adeno carcinoma of esophagus
A:-66 fold
B:-55 fold
C:-72 fold
D:-44 fold
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question79:-All of the following are oxidative cytochrome P450 enzymes that cause oxidative metabolism of volatile anaesthetics except
A:-CYP2A6
B:-CYP3A4
C:-CYP2E1
D:-CYP1A2
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question80:-All of the following videolaryngoscopes given below is not based on macintosh blade design except
A:-King vision scope
B:-Vivid trac scope
C:-Macgrath laryngoscope
D:-Pentax airway scope
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question81:-Among the following recommendations of discharge from post anaesthesia care room, identify the incorrect statement.
A:-A minimum mandatory stay is required
B:-Vitals should be stable and within acceptable limits
C:-Scoring systems of discharge may assist in documenting fitness for discharge
D:-Need to urinate before discharge and ability to drink clear fluids should not be a routine discharge criteria
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question82:-Identify the incorrect statement regarding local anaesthetics.
A:-The binding site for the local anaesthetic is located on domain IV, loop S6 of the voltage gated sodium channel
B:-Non-myelinated C fibres are relatively resistant of the action of local anaesthetic
C:-Unchanged local anaesthetic drug is mainly removed by renal excretion
D:-Ropivacaine differs in structure from bupivacaine in the substitution of a butyl group in place of a propyl group in the piperidine ring
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question83:-All the following conditions are risk factors for Leukemia except
A:-Severe combined immune deficiency
B:-Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C:-Infantile Seborrheic Dermatitis
D:-Neurofibromatosis Type 1
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question84:-After initial steps of resuscitation of a term newborn (providing warmth, positioning airway, clearing secretions, dry and stimulating the baby) the heart rate of baby is 10
per minute and the baby is grasping. The next step of resuscitation is
A:-Providing chest compression and PPV
B:-Providing chest compression, IV Adrenaline and PPV
C:-Providing chest compression, IT Adrenaline and PPV
D:-Providing PPV and Monitor 𝑆𝑃𝑂2
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question85:-All the following regarding Pertussis is correct except
A:-Pertussis is extremely contagious with attack rate as high as 100% in susceptible individuals exposed to Aerosol droplets at close range
B:-After intense exposure as in households the rate of subclinical infections is as high as 80% in fully immunized or previously infected individuals
C:-Only Bordetella Pertussis expresses Pertussis toxin
D:-Test for IgA and IgM Pertussis antibodies are reliable methods for serologic diagnosis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-All the following are true regarding postoperative endocarditis except
A:-Postoperative endocarditis is classfied as early (less than 12 months) and late
B:-Commonest organism causing early endocarditis S. viridans
C:-Late endocarditis is more like native valve endocarditis
D:-Cardiac operations are important predisposing factor for gram-negative endocarditis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question87:-All the following are goals of the program POSHAN abhiyan except
A:-Reduce stunting in children of 0 to 6 years @ 2% per annum
B:-Reduce under nutrition in children of 0 to 6 years @ 2% per annum
C:-Reduce low birth weight babies @ 2% per annum
D:-Reduce prevalence of Vitamin A deficiency of children 0 to 6 years @ 2% per annum
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question88:-Site of brain abscess due to otogenic source is
A:-Temporal lobe and cerebellum
B:-Frontal lobe and cerebellum
C:-Parietal lobe and cerebellum
D:-Occipital lobe and cerebellum
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question89:-Normal thyroid volume is approximately 1 ml at birth and increases with _________ and ______
A:-age and height
B:-age
C:-age and weight
D:-age and body surface area
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-Craniopharyngioma
A:-arise from Rathke’s pouch
B:-malignant
C:-endothelial tumour
D:-a type of glial brain tumour
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Antiphospholipid antibodies include all except
A:-anti cardiolipin antibody
B:-anti nuclear antibody
C:-anti-β-2-glycoprotein-1
D:-lupus anti coagulant
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question92:-In a newborn preductal 𝑆𝑝𝑂2 of 85-95% after birth is obtained at
A:-5 minutes
B:-7 minutes
C:-10 minutes
D:-3 minutes
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question93:-All are clinical features of ante partum haemorrhage due to placenta previa except
A:-Sudden painless bleeding
B:-Bright red in colour
C:-Uterus tense and tender on palpation
D:-Uterus corresponds to gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-Overlapping of fetal skull bones seen in intra uterine fetal demise is
A:-Lemon sign
B:-Spaldings sign
C:-Ball sign
D:-Roberts sign
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-Advantages of vasectomy are all except
A:-Done under local anaesthesia
B:-Sterility is immediate
C:-It is a permanent method of sterilization
D:-Cheaper than tubectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-Differential diagnosis is mass per vaginum are all except
A:-Inversion of uterus
B:-Cystocele
C:-Sarcoma uterus
D:-Fibroid polyp
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question97:-Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of serotonin syndrome ?
A:-Agitation
B:-Clonus
C:-Dry skin
D:-Fever
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-Environmental risk factors for schizophrenia are all except
A:-Cannabis
B:-Obstetrical complications
C:-Sexual abuse
D:-Migration
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-Hallucination is a disorder of
A:-Thought
B:-Perception
C:-Affect
D:-Memory
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question100:-Which is the correct instruction to be given for taking a serum lithium test ?
A:-Can be done any time after 24 hours of starting medication
B:-Can be done any time after 3 weeks of medication
C:-Can be done any time after 5 days of regular medication
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D