ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN MICROBIOLOGY – NCA – CAT NO 31/2018 – MEDICAL EDUCATION

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 6/2019/OL
Category Code: 031/2018
Exam: Assistant professor in Microbiology (NCA)
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 20-03-2019
Department Medical Education
Alphacode A
Question1:-Which article defines the amendment of Indian constitution?
A:-Article 368
B:-Article 367
C:-Article 395
D:-Article 366
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-‘Ormmakalude Bhramanapatham’ is the autobiography of
A:-O. Madhavan
B:-Nambi Narayanan
C:-G. Madhavan Nair
D:-Varghese Vaidyan
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question3:-Which among the following was the centre of ‘Tholviraku Samaram’?
A:-Kavumbai
B:-Cheemeni
C:-Karivellur
D:-Morazha
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question4:-Origin of classical dance ‘Kathak’ is in
A:-Odissha
B:-U.P
C:-Andhra Pradesh
D:-Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question5:-First electronic digital computer of the world is
A:-Deep Blue
B:-Cosmos
C:-Blue Geno
D:-Eniac
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question6:-Name the book written by Anna Burns, which gets Man Booker Prize in 2018
A:-Washington Black
B:-Nobones
C:-Little construction
D:-Milkman
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question7:-Where was the venue of first session of yogakshema sabha?
A:-Aluva
B:-Pattambi
C:-Kuttippuram
D:-Sreekrishnapuram
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-World Habitat Day is observed on
A:-September 17
B:-October 9
C:-October 3
D:-September 12
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-Who was the first editor of monthly namely ‘Vivekodayam’?
A:-V.T. Bhattathirippad
B:-Vakbhatananda
C:-Premji
D:-N. Kumaran Asan
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question10:-Name of the first atomic submarine of India
A:-V.R. Gill
B:-D.B. Mahawar
C:-INS. Chakra
D:-R.N. Shukla
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Name the programme introduced by government of India for Bangladesh refugees?
A:-Operation Insaniyat
B:-Operation Bangla
C:-Operation Sadbhavana
D:-Operation Meghdoot
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Name the play written by Lalithambika Antharjanam on the basis of widow re-marriage?
A:-Lalithanjali
B:-Ayirathiri
C:-Punarjanmam
D:-Pavithramothiram
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question13:-Which Indian Five Year Plan is known as ‘Gadgil Yojana’?
A:-Fourth Plan
B:-Third Plan
C:-Second Five Year Plan
D:-Sixth Five Year Plan
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Name the film, which gets national award for best film on social issues in 2017
A:-Aalorukkam
B:-Thondimuthalum Driksakshiyum
C:-Bhayanakam
D:-Take off
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question15:-Swachhbharat scheme was inaugurated on
A:-August 15, 2015
B:-August 15, 2014
C:-October 2, 2014
D:-January 26, 2014
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question16:-Which Tennis Cup is known as Rolandgarros?
A:-U.S. Open
B:-Australian Open
C:-Wimbledon
D:-French Open
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question17:-Name the novel which gets Vayalar Award in 2018?
A:-Syamamadhavam
B:-Ushnaraashi
C:-Thakshankunnu Swaroopam
D:-Sugandhi Enna Andal-Devanayaki
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question18:-The venue of 10th BRICS summit 2018 is
A:-Xianen – China
B:-Fortaleza – Brazil
C:-Johannesberg – South Africa
D:-Panaji – Goa, India
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-Name the programme of government of Kerala for rehabilitation of differently abled
A:-Kaivalya
B:-Kaithangu
C:-Thuna
D:-Ardram
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-The first ever airport of Sikkim is at ____________.
A:-Gangtok
B:-Lachung
C:-Pelling
D:-Pakyong
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question21:-Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is
A:-IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2
B:-IgG1 > IgG2 > IgM > IgG3
C:-IgG1 > IgM > IgG2 > IgG3
D:-IgG3 > IgG2 > IgG1 > IgM
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question22:-The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is
A:-Neutralisation test
B:-Direct coombs test
C:-Indirect coombs test
D:-Immunohistochemistry
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question23:-All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except
A:-Delayed type of hypersensitivity
B:-Immune mechanism against intracellular microorganisms
C:-`T_{DTH}` cells are the principal mediators
D:-Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question24:-Elek’s gel precipitation test is an example of
A:-Oudine procedure
B:-Ouchterlony procedure
C:-Oakley-Fulthrop procedure
D:-Rocket electrophoresis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question25:-C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to
A:-Recurrent pyogenic infections
B:-Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
C:-Collagen vascular diseases
D:-Heriditary angioneurotic oedema
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by
A:-IgG
B:-Antigen-antibody complex
C:-IgA
D:-IgE
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?
A:-Classical pathway
B:-Alternate pathway
C:-Lectin pathway
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question28:-Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is
A:-Streptococcus pneumonia
B:-Haemophilus influenza
C:-Neisseria meningitidis
D:-Escherichia coli
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-AIIR is needed in
A:-Droplet precautions
B:-Airborne precautions
C:-Contact precautions
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in
A:-White container (puncture proof box)
B:-Yellow bag with biohazard symbol
C:-Blue container (puncture proof box)
D:-Red bag with biohazard symbol
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is
A:-Drainage bag must be always above the bladder level
B:-Closed drainage system should be maintained
C:-Silastic catheters is associated with increased chance of urethritis
D:-Routine prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is advised
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question32:-Bundle care of VAP includes all except
A:-Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45°
B:-Change ventilator tubings frequently
C:-Daily interruption of sedation
D:-Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question33:-Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by
A:-Haemophilus ducreyi
B:-Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C:-Chlamydia trachomatis
D:-Gardnerella vaginalis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question34:-All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT
A:-Major risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B:-Posaconazole is effective
C:-Angioinvasive
D:-Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question35:-True about CBNAAT is
A:-Detects INH resistance
B:-Detection limit of `”10^{4}”` bacilli/ml sputum
C:-Detects mutations of the rpo B gene
D:-Can further speciate MTB complex
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-Modified Faine’s criteria is used for the diagnosis of
A:-Rheumatic fever
B:-Bacterial vaginosis
C:-Systemic lupus erythematosis
D:-Leptospirosis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question37:-Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of
A:-EHEC
B:-ETEC
C:-EPEC
D:-EIEC
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except
A:-Exposure monitoring not required
B:-Bactericidal, Virucidal, Sporicidal
C:-Alkaline solution is active
D:-Not stains skin proteins
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question39:-Flash sterilization is
A:-Can be used as a routine substituite for autoclave
B:-Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes
C:-Can be used for wrapped items
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant
A:-3%-6%
B:-2%
C:-0.55%
D:-10%
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
A:-Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask
B:-Glove, Mask, Goggles, Gown
C:-Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask
D:-Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to
A:-Meropenem
B:-Doripenem
C:-Imipenem
D:-Ertapenem
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme
A:-Sustainable than Front end strategy
B:-Prospective audit and feedback is an example
C:-Formulary restriction
D:-It is labour intensive than Front-end strategy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Types of EQA methods include
A:-Proficiency testing
B:-Rechecking or Retesting
C:-On-site evaluation
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-True about TSI agar is
A:-Ratio of sucrose to glucose is 1:10
B:-It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective
agar plates
C:-It is better than KIA for screening stool specimens for Yersinia enterocolitica
D:-It is more sensitive in the detection of hydrogen sulphide than SIM
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:
A:-Panton Valentine toxin is associated with HA-MRSA
B:-β hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus is also known as synergohymenotropic toxin
C:-Hot-cold phenomenon is exhibited by α hemolysin
D:-Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question47:-Ideally blood levels of vancomycin has to be monitored while treating MRSA infection. What is the trough level
of Vancomycin?
A:-4-10 μg/mL
B:-10-20 μg/mL
C:-20-30 μg/mL
D:-30-40 μg/mL
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci
except:
A:-Bacitracin sensitivity
B:-Bile solubility
C:-Inulin fermentation
D:-Optochin sensitivity
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question49:-Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
A:-Streptococcus pyogenes
B:-Bacillus cereus
C:-Bacteroides fragilis
D:-Haemophilus ducreyi
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question50:-Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to:
A:-Presence of penicillinase enzymes
B:-Efflux pumps
C:-Altered penicillin binding proteins
D:-Decreased permeability across cell wall
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question51:-Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?
A:-A
B:-B
C:-C
D:-D
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question52:-Auxotyping is done for:
A:-Meningococci
B:-Streptococci
C:-Gonococci
D:-Enterococci
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Choose the false statement regarding diphtheria toxin:
A:-The receptor for diphtheria toxin is heparin binding epidermal growth factor
B:-0.1 μg/kg toxin can be lethal to susceptible individual
C:-Anti diphtheria antibody titres of ≥ 0.01 U/mL is protective
D:-Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum produces diphtheria like toxin
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-Shanghai fever is caused by:
A:-Burkholderia cepacia
B:-Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C:-Pseudomonas auruginosa
D:-Corynebacterium jeikeium
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question55:-Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A:-Type I
B:-Type II
C:-Type III
D:-Type IV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:
A:-Detect requirement of X factor
B:-Select out H.influenzae
C:-Detect requirement of V factor
D:-Enhance capsule formation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question57:-Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regarding
this agent EXCEPT:
A:-A.baumannii can be transmitted by airborne route
B:-Most important mechanism for drug resistance is by expression of β lactamases
C:-Sulbactum has intrinsic activity against A.baumannii
D:-Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
A:-Glycosylate GTP binding protein
B:-Elevated intracellular cGMP
C:-ADP ribosylation of G protein
D:-Inhibition of cAMP
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty.
He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:
A:-TT 1 dose + HTIG
B:-TT 1 dose
C:-TT complete dose
D:-TT complete dose + HTIG
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question60:-Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:
A:-Culture
B:-Urea breath test
C:-Rapid urease test
D:-Antibody detection
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question61:-Colicin typing is done for:
A:-S.dysenteriae
B:-S.flexneri
C:-S.boydii
D:-S.sonnei
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
A:-Widal test
B:-Demonstrating Vi antigen
C:-Detection of Vi antibodies
D:-Nested PCR of serum sample
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question63:-XDR TB is defined as:
A:-Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
B:-Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin
C:-MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
D:-MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:
A:-RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation
B:-In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens
C:-TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies
D:-Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question65:-True about Leptospira interrogans:
A:-It is a facultative anaerobe
B:-Semisolid Fletcher’s medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
C:-Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans
D:-Serovar specific PCR tests are available
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question66:-Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
A:-Genital chlamydiasis
B:-Interstitial pneumonia
C:-Atherosclerosis
D:-Lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
A:-Obligate intracellular parasites
B:-Mycoplasmas are L forms
C:-Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation
D:-Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
A:-Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route
B:-Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever
C:-Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
D:-Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
A:-Scrub typhus
B:-Endemic typhus
C:-Epidemic typhus
D:-Trench fever
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?
A:-30% `”H_2O_2″` + 10% Tween 80
B:-1% `”H_2O_2″` + Phosphate buffer at pH 6.4%
C:-3% `”H_2O_2″` + 10% Tween 80
D:-10% `”H_2O_2″` + 0.85% saline
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question71:-Hair perforation test is positive in
A:-Trichophyton violaceum
B:-Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C:-Trichophyton audouinii
D:-Trichophyton schoenleinii
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
A:-Penetration of skin by larva
B:-Autoinfection
C:-Ingestion of eggs
D:-Ingestion of larva
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
A:-Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip
B:-Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
C:-Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
D:-Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
A:-Phialophora verrucosa
B:-Sporothrix schenckii
C:-Fonsecaea pedrosoi
D:-Cladosporium carrionii
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
A:-Subtype A
B:-Subtype B
C:-Subtype C
D:-Subtype D
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question76:-Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
A:-Casoni’s test
B:-Schick test
C:-Dick test
D:-Frei test
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
A:-Plasmodium malariae
B:-Plasmodium ovale
C:-Plasmodium vivax
D:-Plasmodium falciparum
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-All are true about super carriers except
A:-Highly infectious
B:-High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag
C:-Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg
D:-High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question79:-Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
A:-Brain
B:-Lung
C:-Spleen
D:-Liver
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
A:-Causes African histoplasmosis
B:-Skin and bone involvement mainly
C:-Yeast cells size 7-15 µm
D:-Yeast cell size 2-4 µm
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question81:-Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment
A:-Genotype 1b
B:-Genotype 1a
C:-Genotype 2
D:-Genotype 3
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question82:-Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
A:-Hepatitis A
B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Hepatitis E
D:-Hepatitis D
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
A:-Strains similar to oral polio virus
B:-Seen in places where OPV is used extensively
C:-Common serotype Sabin type 3
D:-High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-True about Antigenic drift
A:-Point mutation
B:-Results in pandemics
C:-Occurs in influenza A virus
D:-Occurs every 10-20 years
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic of
A:-Measles
B:-Mumps
C:-Rubella
D:-Chicken pox
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question86:-Nipah virus belongs to
A:-Paramyxovirus
B:-Orthomyxovirus
C:-Picorna virus
D:-Enterovirus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-All are true about Negri bodies except
A:-Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions
B:-Common in cerebellum, hippocampus
C:-2-10 µ size
D:-Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question88:-Rabies vaccine is prepared from
A:-Street virus
B:-Fixed virus
C:-Live virus
D:-Wild virus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-All are human prion disease except
A:-Kuru
B:-Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
C:-Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D:-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question90:-All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
A:-Burkitt’s lymphoma
B:-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C:-Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D:-Hepatocellular carcinoma
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question91:-All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
A:-Not terratogenic
B:-Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia
C:-Congenital infection more in 2nd half
D:-Congenital infections rare in 1st half
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question92:-Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
A:-Diffuse roundening and ballooning
B:-Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells
C:-Crenation and degeneration
D:-Cytoplasmic vacoulation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
A:-Serotype 1
B:-Serotype 2
C:-Serotype 3
D:-Serotype 4
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question94:-All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
A:-West African
B:-East African
C:-Asian
D:-North American
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question95:-Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
A:-Aseptic meningitis
B:-Bilateral parotitis
C:-Epididymo orchitis
D:-Pancreatitis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
A:-Coxsackie virus
B:-Mumps virus
C:-Measles virus
D:-Influenza virus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question97:-All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
A:-Live vaccine
B:-One dose for adults
C:-Oka strain given
D:-2 doses for children
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question98:-Germ tube test is positive for
A:-Candida albicans
B:-Candida glabrata
C:-Candida krusei
D:-Candida tropicalis
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-Following are true about Cryptococcus except
A:-Serotypes of Cryptococcus – A, B, C, D
B:-C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings
C:-Capsule is main virulence factor
D:-C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
A:-Kyasanur forest disease virus
B:-Japanese B.encephalitis virus
C:-Chandipura virus
D:-West Nile virus
Correct Answer:- Option-A