ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN ORTHOPAEDICS – MEDICAL EDUCATION SERVICES (CAT.NO:015/20200

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 6/2021/OL
Category Code: 015/2020
Exam: Assistant Professor in Orthopaedics
Date of Test 10-03-2021
Department Medical Education Services
Alphacode A
Question1:-A person with posterior interosseous nerve palsy
A:-Will be able to actively dorsiflex his wrist in neutral position
B:-On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into radial deviation
C:-On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into ulnar deviation
D:-Can willingly dorsiflex the wrist in radial or ulnar deviation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question2:-Using Hertel’s criteria the humeral head has a bad prognosis when the
A:-fracture is not involving the anatomical neck
B:-metaphyseal spike is 9 mm
C:-medial hinge is displaced 3 mm
D:-all of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-Vickers ligament is seen in almost all operated cases of
A:-Radial club hand
B:-Keinbock’s disease
C:-Ulnar club hand
D:-Madelung deformity
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question4:-The muscle that is acting when there is a positive Froment’s sign is
A:-Adductor pollicis
B:-First dorsal interosseous
C:-First palmar interosseous
D:-Flexor pollicis longus
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Bubbles and strips appearance in the X-ray is seen in
A:-simple bone cyst
B:-monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C:-aneurysmal bone cyst
D:-rickets
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-Except for the pattern of inheritance homocystinuria closely mimics
A:-Alkaptonuria
B:-Larsen’s syndrome
C:-Marfan syndrome
D:-Goldenhar’s syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-Ludloff sign is positive in avulsion of
A:-greater trochanter
B:-anterior inferior iliac spine
C:-anterior superior iliac spine
D:-lesser trochanter
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question8:-The length of the arm segment during a clinical examination is measured from
A:-tip of acromion to lateral epicondyle
B:-lateral border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
C:-angle of acromion to lateral epicondyle
D:-anterior border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-Radiocarpal subluxation is a salient feature of which of these fractures ?
A:-Smith fracture
B:-Barton’s fracture
C:-Chauffer fracture
D:-Colles fracture
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-Which of the following joints are together called Chopart’s joint ?
A:-talocalcaneal and calcaneocuboid
B:-talonavicular and talocalcaneal
C:-talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
D:-talonavicular and tibiotalar
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Muscle of the posterior compartment of leg most prone for Volkmans ischaemic contracture is
A:-flexor hallucis longus
B:-tibialis posterior
C:-flexor digitorum longus
D:-soleus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-In a long standing case of compound palmar ganglion one can get all the following except
A:-ulnar nerve symptoms
B:-loss of flexion of interphalangeal joints of fingers
C:-carpal tunnel syndrome
D:-melon seed bodies
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question13:-While fixing a subtrochanteric fracture with a DCS the entry point of the guide wire for the DCS screw should be
A:-At the midpoint of the anteroposterior thickness of the greater trochanter
B:-At the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two thirds of the greater trochanter
C:-At the junction of the anterior one fourth and posterior three fourths of the greater trochanter
D:-Junction of the anterior two third and posterior one third of the greater trochanter
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Subchondral compression of the bone at the angle between the tibial plafond and the base of the medial malleolus is seen in medial malleolar fractures involved in
A:-abduction injury
B:-pronation external rotation injury
C:-adduction injury
D:-supination external rotation injury
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-Cole’s method is used to fix
A:-tendon to tendon
B:-tendon to bone
C:-tendon to muscle
D:-tendon to fascia
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question16:-While exposing the proximal fourth of radius through the Henry’s approach the supinator can be safely
A:-incised medially and retracted laterally
B:-incised laterally and retracted medially
C:-incised in the middle and retracted to either side
D:-pushed up superiorly from its inferior border
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-Functional position of the wrist is
A:-ten degree palmar flexion
B:-twenty degree palmar flexion
C:-neutral position
D:-twenty degree dorsiflexion
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question18:-To expose the radial nerve in a posterior approach to the humerus one has to dissect
A:-through the lateral head of triceps
B:-between the lateral and medial head of triceps
C:-through the medial head of triceps
D:-between the long and lateral head of triceps
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Pulvertaft technique is used for suturing a tendon of
A:-Small diameter to one of large diameter
B:-Large diameter to one of large diameter
C:-Small diameter to one of small diameter
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-In Axer osteotomy to get containment of the anterolateral segment we should do
A:-an inter trochanteric osteotomy with adduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
B:-a sub trochanteric osteotomy with abduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
C:-an intertrochanteric osteotomty with abduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
D:-a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question21:-Milch type 1 fracture is Salter Harris
A:-type 2
B:-type 1
C:-type 4
D:-type 3
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question22:-Regarding excision of carpal bones
i. lunate may be excised by itself.
ii. when triquetrum is excised both lunate and scaphoid are also excised.
iii. when scaphoid is excised both triquetrum and lunate are also excised.
iv. excising pisiform is unnecessary.
A:-statements ii and iii alone are correct
B:-statements i and iv alone are correct
C:-statements i and iii alone are correct
D:-all the statements are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question23:-In Enneking’s staging, Stage 2B is
A:-high grade extracompartmental
B:-low grade extracompartmental
C:-low grade intracompartmental
D:-high grade intracompartmental
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-If the MESS ischaemia score is doubled, then the time of ischaemia is more than
A:-2 hours
B:-4 hours
C:-6 hours
D:-8 hours
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question25:-Multiple enchondromatosis when associated with haemangiomas of the overlying soft tissues is called
A:-Albright syndrome
B:-Maffucci’s syndrome
C:-Edward syndrome
D:-Crouzon’s disease
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-Heuter schede approach is used for draining the
A:-hip joint
B:-elbow joint
C:-shoulder joint
D:-ankle joint
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-Fallen fragment sign is pathognomonic of
A:-aneurysmal bone cyst
B:-flbrous dysplasia
C:-unicameral bone cyst
D:-enchondroma
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-Clutton’s joint is classically,
A:-symptomatic unilateral arthritis
B:-asymptomatic symmetrical arthritis
C:-asymptomatic symmetrical synovitis
D:-asymptomatic unilateral synovitis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-Which of the following is intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy ?
A:-Schanz Osteotomy
B:-Mc Murray’s Osteotomy
C:-Sugioka Osteotomy
D:-Chiari Osteotomy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-Squaring of the patella and widening of the intercondylar notch are classically seen in
A:-Psoriatic arthritis
B:-Gouty arthritis
C:-Rheumatoid arthritis
D:-Haemophilic arthritis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question31:-Cozen’s test is positive in
A:-Golfer’s elbow
B:-Tennis elbow
C:-Students elbow
D:-Little league elbow
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question32:-Regarding atraumatic shoulder instability which of the following is false
A:-rehabilitation is the primary treatment modality
B:-multidirectional
C:-unilateral
D:-Bankart’s lesion is not seen
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question33:-Radial dysplasia is associated with
A:-Halt-Oram syndrome
B:-TAR syndrome
C:-Brachio carpalis muscle
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question34:-Siffert-Katz sign is primarily due to
A:-Anteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
B:-Posteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
C:-Posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
D:-Anteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question35:-Which is a cancellous insert graft ?
A:-Phemister graft
B:-Nicoll graft
C:-Gill massive sliding graft
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question36:-Fairbank’s triangle is typically described in
A:-Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
B:-Congenital coxa vara
C:-Perthe’s disease
D:-Tuberculosis of the hip
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-In which of the following the hip is dislocated in stage 1 of the test
A:-Barlow’s test
B:-Ortolani’s test
C:-Both of these
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-When tibialis anterior and posterior are weak and the peronei are strong in the orthosis we should give ?
A:-outside iron and inner T strap
B:-inside iron and outer T strap
C:-posterior iron and anterior T strap
D:-anterior iron and posterior T strap
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question39:-Gallows traction without posterior gutter splint can be given upto the age of _____ years.
A:-1
B:-2
C:-3
D:-4
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-In congenital pseudarthrosis tibia march fracture is seen in Boyd type
A:-4
B:-3
C:-2
D:-5
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question41:-Chicken wire calcification is seen in
A:-Osteoblastoma
B:-Chondroblastoma
C:-Chondromyxoid fibroma
D:-Parosteal osteosarcoma
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question42:-In compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the relation of the distal pin to the transverse axis of the body of talus should be
A:-through the axis
B:-anterior to the axis
C:-posterior to the axis
D:-any position will do
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-The amputation in which the calcaneum is rotated and fused with the tibia is
A:-Chopart’s
B:-Syme’s
C:-Lisfranc’s
D:-Pirogoff’s
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question44:-Regarding Wallerian degeneration which of the following is false ?
A:-Also called secondary degeneration
B:-Fragmentation in the segment is seen
C:-Axonal debris is removed by the macrophages within a month
D:-Chromatolysis occurs
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question45:-When the ulnar nerve is totally divided at the wrist the interossei can act through
A:-Martin-Gruber anastomosis
B:-Richi-Cannieu anastomosis
C:-Both of these
D:-The above statement is wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-When heel cord advancement is done ?
i. Equinus is reduced
ii. Push off is greatly weakened
iii. Tendoachillis is weakened.
Of these statements
A:-i and ii are correct
B:-i and iii are correct
C:-i, ii and iii are correct
D:-ii and iii are correct
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question47:-Lambrinudi’s triple arthrodesis was originally described for which foot deformity
A:-calcaneus
B:-equinovarus
C:-equinus
D:-calcaneovalgus
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question48:-Which muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant ?
A:-Duchenne’s
B:-Becker’s
C:-Facioscapulohumeral
D:-Limb girdle
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-In Anderson and D’Alonzo classification highest rate of non-union is seen in
A:-Type 1
B:-Type 2
C:-Type 3
D:-No difference among the three
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question50:-Soft tissue calcification in the X-ray is seen in
A:-Synovial sarcoma
B:-Fibrosarcoma
C:-Rhabdomyosarcoma
D:-Liposarcoma
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question51:-Which of the following is false with respect to villonodular synovitis ?
A:-Commonly affects the knee
B:-Histopathology is similar to giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath
C:-Presents as repeated attacks of pain and effusion
D:-Aspirated fluid is clear
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question52:-_________ is an osteotomy done at the base of the neck of femur.
A:-Southwick and lmhauser
B:-Dunn
C:-Kramer and Barmada
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Coplanar test is a measure of
A:-Acetabular anteversion alone
B:-Femoral anteversion alone
C:-Difference between femoral and acetabular anteversion
D:-Sum of acetabular and femoral anteversion
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-Intercostobrachial nerve is the cutaneous branch of
A:-T1
B:-T3
C:-T2
D:-T4
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question55:-Cervical sympathetic ganglion associated with ciliospinal reflex is
A:-Superior
B:-Middle
C:-Inferior
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-The bone commonly involved in Caffey’s disease
A:-metatarsal
B:-Humerus
C:-Mandible
D:-Femur
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-In a case of left sided slipped capital femoral epiphysis in the frog leg lateral view the epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle on the right side is ten degree, then the minimum angle
of the same on the left side beyond which the slip is not considered mild is
A:-45
B:-50
C:-55
D:-40
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-While doing a replacement in a valgus knee, the distal femoral cut is better done in
A:-5 degree valgus
B:-7 degree valgus
C:-3 degree valgus
D:-none of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-1) PCL release from femur 2) Removal of lateral osteophytes 3) Pie crusting of the ITB
4) Popliteus release 5) Posterolateral capsular release
The correct sequential order of release for correcting valgus in a tkr is
A:-1 2 3 4 5
B:-5 4 3 2 1
C:-2 1 3 5 4
D:-2 1 5 3 4
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question60:-Motion similar to that in a cow’s hip is obtained in Stulberg type
A:-3
B:-5
C:-4
D:-2
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question61:-For safely releasing the origin of peroneus longus from the fibular head, the blade should be directed
A:-Upwards and posteriorly
B:-Downwards and anteriorly
C:-Upwards and anteriorly
D:-Downwards and posteriorly
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question62:-For introducing a 4.5 mm non self tapping cortical screw the drill bit for the pilot hole should be
A:-3.5 mm
B:-3.2 mm
C:-2.7 mm
D:-4.5 mm
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-During operations for the proximal femur if the anteversion guide wire is placed along the upper half of the anterior surface of the femoral neck and then if you pass the
definitive guidewire parallel to it, the resultant anteversion will
A:-increase
B:-decrease
C:-will not change
D:-may increase or decrease
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question64:-Pellagrini-Steida disease affects
A:-anterior cruciate ligament
B:-posterior cruciate ligament
C:-medial collateral ligament
D:-lateral collateral ligament
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Regarding the knee joint the popliteus muscle is functionally ____ and its tendon is ______
A:-unlocking and extra articular
B:-locking and intra articular
C:-locking and extra articular
D:-unlocking and intra articular
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-Which is the false statement ?
A:-Step length increases with leg length
B:-Cadence is greater in children
C:-Step length is more than stride length
D:-Walking velocity is measured in metres per second
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question67:-Holstein-Lewis lesion presents as a
A:-pre reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
B:-post reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
C:-pre reduction lesion and is managed surgically
D:-post reduction lesion and is managed surgically
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-Oblique popliteal ligament of the knee is pierced by which artery ?
A:-superior medial geniculate
B:-superior lateral geniculate
C:-middle geniculate
D:-inferior geniculate
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-Regarding Turrett exostosis what is true ?
A:-intracortical
B:-traumatic
C:-does not limit joint movements
D:-conservative treatment is beneficial
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question70:-While doing a release of the carpal tunnel it is cut in line with the
A:-ring finger
B:-middle finger
C:-index finger
D:-none of these
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question71:-Positive Volkmann’s sign is due to contracture of
A:-flexor carpi radialis
B:-flexor carpi ulnaris
C:-flexor digitorum profundus
D:-pronator teres
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question72:-The gliding hole for a 3.5 mm cortical screw when used as a lag screw should be
A:-3.25 mm
B:-4.5 mm
C:-3.5 mm
D:-2.7 mm
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-During a normal gait the muscles that are active with the first, second and third rockers are respectively
A:-Tibialis anterior, triceps surae and tibialis posterior with the intrinsics
B:-Triceps surae, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and tibialis anterior
C:-Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and triceps surae
D:-Tibialis posteror with intrinsics, tibialis anterior and triceps surae
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Sprouting granulations at the mouth of a sinus in a case of chronic osteomyelitis indicate
A:-acute flare up
B:-underlying cavity
C:-underlying sequestrum
D:-only an indication of the chronicity
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-In Ober transfer
A:-tibialis anterior is passed over the shin of tibia
B:-tibialis anterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
C:-tibialis posterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
D:-tibialis posterior is passed over the shin of tibia
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-Regarding Felon which is wrong ?
A:-produces a collar-stud abscess
B:-if untreated it will always lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx
C:-is infection of the terminal pulp space
D:-if neglected ends up in a desensitised withered finger tip
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question77:-Vascular type of Ehler-Danlos syndrome is
A:-Type 6
B:-Type 4
C:-Type 5
D:-Type 3
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question78:-While doing dcp for a diaphyseal transverse fracture opening of the far cortex is prevented by
A:-over contouring the plate
B:-under contouring the plate
C:-anatomical contouring the plate
D:-prebending the plate
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question79:-In Ratliff classification in type 3
A:-partial head involvement
B:-whole head involvement
C:-involvement is from the fracture line to the epiphyseal plate
D:-none of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question80:-In scapholunate dissociation
A:-Watson’s test is negative
B:-Scapholunate space is 4 mm
C:-Cortical ring sign is absent
D:-Scapholunate angle <70 in the lateral view Correct Answer:- Option-B Question81:-Rugger jersey spine is seen in A:-Osteopetrosis B:-Eosinophilic granuloma C:-Hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal disease D:-Both 1 and 3 Correct Answer:- Option-D Question82:-In radial nerve palsy when palmaris longus is sutured to the rerouted extensor pollicis longus which movements of the thumb are regained A:-abduction and extension B:-adduction and flexion C:-abduction and flexion D:-adduction and extension Correct Answer:- Option-A Question83:-In a child of eight years which of the following epiphyseal centres around the elbow will be absent ? A:-capitellum B:-medial epicondyle C:-radial head D:-olecranon Correct Answer:- Option-D Question84:-If the second half of the POLO test is positive it means that A:-posterior cruciate ligament is too tight B:-flexion gap is too narrow C:-both statements are true D:-both statements are wrong Correct Answer:- Option-C Question85:-While doing a shuck test, if the hip is adequately tight how much of the femoral head is permitted to disengage from the liner A:-1/4 B:-1/2 C:-1/3 D:-2/3 Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled Question86:-What is false regarding pseudoachondroplasia ? A:-normal skull and facies B:-platyspondyly with anterior central beaking C:-epiphysis alone is affected D:-shallow acetabulam Correct Answer:- Option-C Question87:-In which among the following dwarfs the spine alone is involved without limb involvement ? A:-Hand-Schuller-Christian disease B:-Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia C:-Morquio's syndrome D:-Diastrophic dwarfism Correct Answer:- Option-C Question88:-In rickets, non union of osteotomy is sure to occur, if it is done before which stage of Lovett A:-2 B:-1 C:-4 D:-3 Correct Answer:- Option-D Question89:-Which is not a feature of sabre tibia ? A:-sharp curve B:-mid shaft involved C:-generally purely anterior curve D:-occurs upto the age of 15 Correct Answer:- Option-A Question90:-In a case of brachial plexus injury, if you get all the modalities of triple response to histamine over an insensitive dermatome the lesion is then A:-Preganglionic B:-Postganglionic C:-Neither of the two D:-Both 1 and 2 Correct Answer:- Option-A Question91:-In the early stages of a case of syringomyelia, over the affected area the patient will be able to appreciate A:-pin pricks B:-hot objects C:-light touch D:-none of these Correct Answer:- Option-C Question92:-In protrusion acetabuli the CE angle of Weiberg will be greater than A:-30 degree B:-20 degree C:-50 degree D:-40 degree Correct Answer:- Option-D Question93:-The normal measurements of volar tilt of radius, radial inclination and radial height are respectively A:-20 degree, 11 degree and 20 mm B:-25 degree, 30 degree and 25 mm C:-11 degree, 23 degree and 11 mm D:-30 degree, 40 degree and 30 mm Correct Answer:- Option-C Question94:-Applying Mirel's criteria, a peritrochanteric blastic lesion with moderate pain will need prophylactic internal fixation when the lesion involves A:-<1/3 diameter of the bone B:->2/3 diameter of the bone
C:-1/3 − 2/3 diameter of the bone
D:-cannot comment
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question95:-The three fragment triplane fracture is a combination of Salter-Harris type
A:-2 and 3
B:-3 and 4
C:-1 and 2
D:-2 and 4
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-Geographical skull is seen in
A:-Hyperparathyroidism
B:-Multiple myeloma
C:-Eosinophilic granuloma
D:-Pagets disease
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question97:-In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus anterior spike and crescent sign in the X-ray respectively represent
A:-tilt and rotation
B:-rotation and tilt
C:-posterior displacement and tilt
D:-tilt and posterior displacement
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question98:-Harmon approach is valuable for exposure of which part of tibia ?
A:-Upper one third
B:-Upper two third
C:-Middle two third
D:-Middle one third
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-Osteoid osteoma does not affect
A:-Clavicle
B:-Vertebrae
C:-Skull
D:-Fibula
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-In a pelvis X-ray only the principal compressive trabeculae stand out prominently and the remaining trabeculae have been essentially absorbed, then the Singh’s index is
A:-Grade 4
B:-Grade 3
C:-Grade 2
D:-Grade 1
Correct Answer:- Option-C