SENIOR LECTURER IN ORTHOPAEDICS NCA- MEDICAL EDUCATION

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 10/2018/OL
Category Code: 151/2017
Exam: Senior Lecturer in Orthopaedics NCA
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 14-02-2018
Department Medical Education
Alphacode A
Question1:-‘Navika Sagar Parikrama’, a circum-navigation expedition by an all-woman Indian Navy crew, was flagged off on
Sept 10, 2017 from which state?
A:-Goa
B:-Tamil Nadu
C:-Gujarat
D:-Maharashtra
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-Who is the Chief Justice of India?
A:-Shekhar Basu
B:-Dipak Misra
C:-Baldev Sharma
D:-P.K. Sinha
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question3:-Who is the father of ‘Modern Kerala Renaissance’?
A:-Chattampi Swamikal
B:-Ayyankali
C:-Brahmananda Sivayogi
D:-Sree Narayana Guru
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question4:-Who was the owner of the famous newspaper ‘Swadeshabhimani’?
A:-Moorkoth Kumaran
B:-C.V. Kunjiraman
C:-Vakkam Abdul Khadar Maulavi
D:-K. Ramakrishna Pillai
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question5:-Which event led to the Royal Proclamation of July 26, 1859?
A:-Vaikom Sathyagraha
B:-Kuttamkulam Sathyagraha
C:-Ezhava Memorial
D:-Shanar Agitation
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question6:-Who accepted the pen name ‘Kesari’?
A:-C.V. Kunjiraman
B:-Kandathil Varughese Mappilai
C:-Vengayil Kunhiraman Nair
D:-Chengalath Kunhirama Menon
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-Who is regarded as the ‘father of political movement’ in modern Travancore?
A:-G. Parameswaran Pillai
B:-R. Ranga Rao
C:-N. Raman Pillai
D:-Mathu Tharakan
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-‘Hit Refresh’ is a famous book written by _________.
A:-Sanjay Jha
B:-Sunder Pichai
C:-Satya Nadella
D:-Arvind Pangarhia
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-Who authored the work ‘Mokshapradipam’?
A:-Vagbhatananda
B:-Brahmananda Sivayogi
C:-Vaikunta Swami
D:-Kumara Guru
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-Nair Service Society (NSS) has been modelled after which organization?
A:-Brahma Samaj
B:-Arya Samaj
C:-Servants of India Society
D:-Home Rule League
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Who is the Chief of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
A:-Christine Lagrade
B:-Paolo Gentiloni
C:-James Mattis
D:-Htin Kyaw
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Article 24 deals with __________.
A:-Freedom of conscience
B:-Prohibition of employment of children
C:-Paying of taxes
D:-Right to conserve the language and culture
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-‘Kazhinja Kalam’ is the autobiography of ________.
A:-Joseph Mundassery
B:-K.P. Kesava Menon
C:-E.V. Krishna Pillai
D:-A.K. Gopalan
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Who authored the novel ‘Sarada’?
A:-C.V. Raman Pillai
B:-Appu Nedungadi
C:-O. Chandu Menon
D:-K.M. Panikkar
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-When did Sri Chithira Tirunal Balarama Varma issued his famous Temple Entry Proclamation?
A:-Nov. 1, 1936
B:-Nov. 12, 1936
C:-Nov. 10, 1937
D:-Nov. 10, 1938
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question16:-‘Wagon Tragedy’ happened to be a tragic episode of _______.
A:-Non-co-operation
B:-Paliyam Sathyagraha
C:-Kuttamkulam Sathyagraha
D:-Malabar Rebellion
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question17:-Which article of our Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’?
A:-Article 1
B:-Article 2
C:-Article 3
D:-Article 4
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-Which country has roped in Bollywood actress Parineeti Chopra as their tourism ambassador?
A:-China
B:-South Kerala
C:-Japan
D:-Australia
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana, black money worth _________ was disclosed.
A:-Rs. 4,900 crore
B:-Rs. 4,500 crore
C:-Rs. 4,000 crore
D:-Rs. 5,200 crore
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-Which state assembly has passed the bill on parental care on Sept 15, 2017?
A:-Tamil Nadu
B:-Mizoram
C:-Bihar
D:-Assam
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question21:-The following are true about Caffey’s disease, except
A:-Warm swellings over the mandibles
B:-Leukoctosis
C:-Lesions in the Scapula are usually unilateral
D:-Onion peel like appearance on X rays
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question22:-Sarcoidosis is also known as the following, except
A:-Osteitis tuberculosis simplex cyctoides
B:-Schaumann’s disease
C:-Jungling’s disease
D:-Uveoparotid fever
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-In chronic low back pain, correlation between CT and EMG for localisation of nerve root injury is between
A:-20 to 35%
B:-80 to 85%
C:-45 to 50%
D:-65 to 73%
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question24:-Acute Brachial neuritis usually affects
A:-Long thoracic nerve
B:-Radial nerve
C:-Musculocutaneous curve
D:-Dorsal scapular nerve
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question25:-The following are true in Necrotising facilitis caused by streptococcus Pyogenes, except
A:-Often begins at the site of a non penetrating injury
B:-Creatine Phosphokinase is elevated
C:-Renal impairment is common
D:-Usually associated with gas in deep tissues
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-Lytic changes of bone are radiologically visible due to loss of __________% of bone density.
A:-50 – 75
B:-35 – 45
C:-20 – 30
D:-More than 80
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-The most common site of haematohgenous osteomyelitis in adults is
A:-Vertebrae
B:-Upper Tibia
C:-Pubis
D:-Neck of Femur
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question28:-Common causes of Sternal Osteomyelitis after cardiac surgery are all except
A:-Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
B:-Staph. Aureus
C:-Gram negative enteric bacilli
D:-Mycoplasma
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question29:-Ossification center of Greater tuberosity of Humerus appears between the following age
A:-Present at birth
B:-5 to 7 year
C:-9 to 10 year
D:-3rd month to 2 year
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question30:-The most widespread type of cartilage in the body is
A:-Hyaline cartilage
B:-Fibrocartilage
C:-Elastic cartilage
D:-Chondro cartilage
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question31:-The following factors hindring absorption of calcium from the intestine, except
A:-Excessive Phosphates
B:-Excessive fatty acids
C:-Excessive Carbonates
D:-Excessive Magnesium
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-Which of the following is a feature of High Phosphorous rickets?
A:-Marked alkalosis
B:-Normal parathyroid activity
C:-Monkeberg sclerosis
D:-Large bowel retains the excess Calcium
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question33:-The following is true of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism due to renal damage, except
A:-High serum Phosphorous
B:-High Calcium level
C:-Stunted growth
D:-Marrow fibrosis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Of the following, which bone is most frequently involved by Paget’s disease
A:-Skull
B:-Spine
C:-Tibia
D:-Fibula
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-Empty can’ test is done to detect
A:-Sacroliliac joint pathology
B:-Iliopsoas tear
C:-Deltoid ligament pathology
D:-Supraspinatus impingement
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question36:-Birbeck granuless in Histiocyosis X are found inside
A:-Endoplasmic Reticulum
B:-Langerhan’s cells
C:-Mitochondria
D:-Ribosome
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-The following is true about Ollier’s disease, except
A:-More common than Mafucci’s syndrome
B:-Bilateral distribution of enchondromas
C:-Haemangiomas are not seen
D:-Lymphangioma is absent
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question38:-The following are associated with ‘coxa saltans’ except
A:-Thickened lliotibial band
B:-Slipping of anterior edge of Gluteus Maximus
C:-Illiopsoas tendinitis
D:-Rectus femoris tear
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question39:-The following is true about Riche Cannieu Anastomosis, except
A:-May be misdiagnosed as Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
B:-Connection from MN to UN in the forearm
C:-Electomyography is helpful in diagnosing the condition
D:-All intrinsic muscles of hand may be innervated by Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-”Jersey Finger” commonly affects
A:-Ring finger
B:-Index finger
C:-Little finger
D:-Middle finger
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question41:-The manifestations of Neurofibromatosis include all except
A:-Hypoplasia of transverse process of Thoracic vertebrae
B:-Anterior scalloping of Thoracic vertebrae
C:-Lateral scaloping of cervical vertebrae
D:-Hypoplasia of pedicles
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-The following is true about Non osteogenic Fibroma of bone
A:-Long axis perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
B:-Central location in the bone
C:-Thin border of decreased density
D:-Both ends of Fibula may be involved
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-Features of Fibrous dysplasia include all except
A:-Serum Calcium levels are usually normal
B:-Ground glass appearance of bone
C:-Leonine ossea
D:-Malignant transformation in 30-50%
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question44:-Gurd test is aid in diagnosis of
A:-Ischial bursitis
B:-Peroneal tenosynovitis
C:-Fat embolism
D:-Acromion bursitis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question45:-The following is true regarding liposarcoma
A:-Polyherdral cells are not seen in liposarcoma
B:-Liposarcoma can metastasise to bones
C:-Usually seen in adults 40 years or more
D:-Liposarcoma do not originate within medullary cavity
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-The following is true about Gaucher’s disease except
A:-Patients are susceptible for infections
B:-An increase in the number of plasma cells are often seen
C:-Lower part of femur is clubbed and expanded
D:-X linked recessive inheritance
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question47:-Needle shaped negative birefringent crystals in synovial fluid is seen in
A:-Homocystinuria
B:-Gout
C:-Cystinuria
D:-Alkaptonuria
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Which of the following is not useful in treatment of homocystinuria ?
A:-Vit B6
B:-Niacin
C:-Folic acid
D:-Vit B12
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question49:-Which of the following congenital disorders can present with hyperuricemia?
A:-Alkaptonuria
B:-Tay Sach’s disease
C:-Von Gierke’s disease
D:-Homocystinuria
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-Aldol Cross links are seen in
A:-Elastin
B:-Collagen
C:-Procollagen
D:-Desmosine
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question51:-The following are false about ”Park and Harris” Lines, except
A:-Cannot occur after generalised illness
B:-They are usually distributed relatively symmetrically
C:-The lines near the end of the shaft are thinner
D:-Does not occur after trauma
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-The function of Ostenectin in bone is
A:-Binds hydroxy apatite
B:-Controls mineralisation
C:-Binds Calcium
D:-Cell attachment
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-The normal value of blood pressure in a 12 year old (systolic-diastolic) in mm Hg is
A:-60 – 35
B:-115 – 65
C:-120 – 65
D:-98 – 57
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question54:-The maximum recommended does of local anaesthetic – Lidocaine (with Epinephrine) in children is
A:-6 mg/kg
B:-5 mg/kg
C:-2.5 mg/kg
D:-7 mg/kg
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-Recommended catheter placement for compartmental pressure measurement, the following is false
A:-Thigh : Anterior compartment
B:-Leg : Anterior / Posterior compartment
C:-Forearm : Extensor compartment
D:-Hand : Interosseous compartment
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-The following is true about Neurogenic shock, except
A:-Hypotension
B:-Cold extremities
C:-Bradycardia
D:-Urine output is normal
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-In Young and Burgess classification, APC type III includes
A:-Complete disruption of Sacro Iliac Joint
B:-Opening of anterior part of Sacro Iliac Joint
C:-Sacral fracture on side of impact
D:-Vertical displacement of hemipelvis
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question58:-The structures causing irreducible anterior hip dislocation are all except
A:-Rectus femoris
B:-Labrum
C:-Ligamentum teres
D:-Capsule
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-In femoral neck fractures, OTA 31-B3.1 correlates to
A:-Garden 1
B:-Garden 2
C:-Garden 3
D:-Garden4
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-The following are features of Cleidocranial Dyostosis, except
A:-Hypertelorism
B:-Supernumerary teeth
C:-Widened symphysis pubis
D:-Usually Autosomal Recessive
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Hunters syndrome is mucopolysaccridoses type
A:-MPS Type I H
B:-MPS Type II
C:-MPS Type III A
D:-MPS Type IV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-In Hastings Classification of Heterotopic Ossification, Type III is
A:-Limitation of forearm pronation / supination
B:-Limitation of elbow flexion / extension
C:-Radiological findings without functional limitation
D:-Bony ankylosis of elbow
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question63:-Which is described as Type I Monteggia equivalent fracture by Bado, except?
A:-Fracture of proximal radius
B:-Radial neck fracture
C:-Anterior dislocation of radial head
D:-# ulnar diaphysis & olecranon with posterior dislocation of radial head
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-The Central compartment of the foot contains
A:-Flexor digitorum brevis
B:-Abductor hallucis
C:-Flexor digiti minimi
D:-Interosseous muscles
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question65:-The best radiologic view to assess Scaphoid tubercle fracture is
A:-45 degree oblique semi-pronated
B:-Ulnar deviated AP
C:-Lateral
D:-Neutral AP
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question66:-The type III periprosthetic Tibia Fractures after Total Knee Arthroplasty, fracture location is
A:-Tibial plateau
B:-Adjacent to the stem
C:-Distal to Prosthesis
D:-Tibial tubercle
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question67:-The criteria for ‘Complex Regional Pain Syndrome’ in Orthopaedic setting includes all except
A:-Non dermatomal neuropathic pain
B:-Abnormalities of sweating
C:-Swelling
D:-Painless joint mobility
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-In Mirels criteria for risk of pathologic fracture, moderate pain is assigned a variable of
A:-0
B:-1
C:-2
D:-3
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-In Osteoporosis, BMD T-score is
A:-> – 1
B:–1 to -2.5
C:-< 2.5 D:-> 2.5
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-The volume of contrast needed for Hip arthroscopy is
A:-10 ml
B:-15 ml
C:-40 ml
D:-50 ml
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-The type of evidence in Observational study is considered as
A:-Very low quality
B:-Low quality
C:-Moderate quality
D:-High quality
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-In Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), systolic BP transiently < 90 mm Hg has a score of A:-0 B:-1 C:-2 D:-3 Correct Answer:- Option-B Question73:-The Functional Independence Measurement (FIM) score is based on A:-12 Physical and psychological categories B:-21 items of basic capacities & higher performance levels C:-13 motor and 5 cognitive items D:-3 function scales Correct Answer:- Option-C Question74:-Indications for 'Early Total Care' in trauma patients includes A:-Lactate <2 mmol/L B:-Urine output > 0.5 ml/kg/hr
C:-Mild hypercapnia
D:-Ionotropic stimulation is needed
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question75:-Cotton Ball spots in the skull is seen in
A:-Fibrosarcoma
B:-Hyperparathyroidism
C:-Myeloma
D:-Pagets disease
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-All are Lipoid histiocytoses, except
A:-Nemann-Pick disease
B:-Gauches splenomegaly
C:-Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
D:-Letterer-Siwe disease
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question77:-The views used in ”FAST” ultrasound scans include all except
A:-longitudinal subxipoid view
B:-Right upper quadrant view of abdomen
C:-Longitudinal left upper quadrant view of abdomen
D:-Bilateral longitudinal thoracic views
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-The following are false about defined parameters for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, except
A:-Body temperature > 38 deg C or < 36 deg C B:-PaCO2 > 32 mm Hg
C:-Heart rate < 90 beats / min D:-Resp. rate < 20 / min Correct Answer:- Option-C Question79:-Serum Inflammatory markers for Medicator activity include all, except A:-Interleukin-1 B:-Lipopolysaccharide binding protein C:-Interleukin-18 D:-Tumour necrosis factor Correct Answer:- Option-B Question80:-Coded value of 3 in Unweighted Reverse Trauma Score as used in Field Triage, has respiratory rate of A:-6-9 / min B:-> 29 / min
C:-1-5 / min
D:-10-29 / min
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-The mechanism of action of a ‘Position’ screw is
A:-Used as a fulcrum to direct an intramedullary nail
B:-Temporary fixation used with articulated compression device
C:-Holds anatomical parts in correct relation to each other
D:-A point of fixation used to anchor a wire loop
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question82:-In Oestern and Tcheme classification of closed fractures, ‘superficial abrasion/contusion with mild fracture
pattern’s is
A:-Grade 1
B:-Grade 2
C:-Grade 3
D:-Grade 4
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question83:-Ultimate tensile strength (Mpa) of cortical bone is
A:-2
B:-10
C:-70
D:-100
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-The following muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the fibular shaft, except
A:-Tibialis posterior
B:-Peroneus tertius
C:-Extensor Digtorum longus
D:-Extensor Hallucis longus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-In anterior tibial syndrome, the following are false except
A:-Extensor digitorum brevis is involved in the late phase
B:-Electromyographic changes in the muscles are absent
C:-Not seen in fractures of tibia
D:-Ext. digitorum longus is always involved
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question86:-The following muscles attaches to the posterior diaphysis of Tibia, except
A:-Tibialis poeterior
B:-Flexor digitorum longus
C:-Popliteus
D:-Biceps femoris
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question87:-The following are false about Sarcoidosis, except
A:-Reossification of the lesions are likely during healing
B:-Bony lesions often expand the cortex
C:-Lymphocytes in surrounding tissues are sparse
D:-Long bones and vertebrae are frequently involved
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question88:-The following are true about congenital neurofibromatosis, except
A:-Inherited as Autosomal Dominant trait
B:-In adults, 5 or more cafe au lait spots of 1.5 cm dia. are diagnostic
C:-Kyphoscoliosis with single mid thoracic curve
D:-In children café au lait are found most over the buttocks
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question89:-The following are accessory ossicles in the foot, except
A:-Os peroneum
B:-Os cuboideum
C:-Os tibile externum
D:-Os supra tibiale
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-In classification of Apophyseal injuries of Olecranon in children, Type III A is
A:-Incomplete stress fracture
B:-Pure apophyseal avulsions
C:-Apophyseal-metaphyseal combinations
D:-Apophysitis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question91:-In proximal radius fractures, ‘Reduction injuries’ associated with elbow dislocation are classified as
A:-Type C
B:-Type D
C:-Type E
D:-Type F
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question92:-The following attach to Radius, except
A:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
B:-Anconeus
C:-Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question93:-Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all, except
A:-Extensior Pollicis Brevis
B:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
C:-Pronator Quadratus
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-The acceptable residual angulation in metaphyseal fractures in the sagittal plane in girls aged 9-11 years is
A:-10 deg
B:-15 deg
C:-5 deg
D:-20 deg
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question95:-Unicameral bone cysts are considered ‘active’ if they have the following features, except
A:-Thick membrane
B:-Single cavity
C:-Children < 12 years D:-Intralesional pressure > 30 cm `H_(2)O`
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-The following are usually involve the posterior elements of the vertebra, except
A:-Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
B:-Osteoid Osteoma
C:-Giant Cell Tumour
D:-Osteochondroma
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question97:-The peak age in years, for pathologic fracture for Chondroblastoma is
A:-0 – 5
B:-5 – 10
C:-10 – 20
D:-20 – 30
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-In Glasgow coma scale, ”Eye opening :To speech” has a score of
A:-2
B:-4
C:-1
D:-3
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question99:-The dosing schedule of Naproxen (oral) in children is
A:-5-10 mg/kg q 6h
B:-10-15 mg/kg q 6h
C:-5-7.5 mg/kg q 12h
D:-15 mg/kg q 6h
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-The following is true of Rhabdomyosarcoma, except
A:-occurs exclusively in striated muscles
B:-Tumour giant cells are seen
C:-Cell usually have cross striations
D:-Greatest incidence is between 30-60 years of age
Correct Answer:- Option-A