Assistant Professor in Ophthalmology – Medical Education

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 6/2020/OL
Category Code: 081/2019
Exam: Assistant Professor in Ophthalmology
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 19-02-2020
Department Medical Education
Alphacode A
Question1:-A snellen visual acuity of 20/200 is equivalent to which of the following logMAR values.
A:-1.00
B:-0
C:-10.00
D:-0.10
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-The corneal endothelium on slitlamp biomicroscopy is examined using
A:-Direct illumination
B:-Sclerotic scatter
C:-Specular reflection
D:-Retro illumination
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-Which of the following does not commonly cause glare?
A:-lritis
B:-Corneal scar
C:-Posteriorsubcapsular cataract
D:-Albinism
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question4:-Corneal haze in corneal edema is primarily due to
A:-reflection
B:-light scattering
C:-refraction
D:-diffraction
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question5:-All of the following statements are true regarding photoreceptors except
A:-There are approximately 120 million rods in the eye
B:-Rods are absent at the fovea
C:-The ratio of Photoreceptors to Ganglion cells is 10:1
D:-There are approximately 20 million cones in the eye
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question6:-Sphincter and dilator muscle of iris is derived from
A:-surface ectoderm
B:-mesenchyme
C:-neuroectoderm
D:-pupillary membrane
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-Regarding angle kappa, which is the correct statement?
A:-It is the angle between optic axis and visual axis
B:-Positive angle kappa is seen in myopia
C:-It is the angle between pupillary axis and visual axis
D:-Positive angle Kappa gives the appearance of pseudoesotropia
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question8:-Which of the following statements is true?
A:-Basal tear secretion is maintained by the main lacrimal gland
B:-Schirmers Test ll measures the basal tear secretion only
C:-TBUT test less than 10 sec is normal
D:-Schirmer Test l measures both basal & reflex secretion
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question9:-Stiles-Crawford effect refers to
A:-reduced sensitivity of peripheral retina
B:-Peripheral rays cut off by iris to counteract optical aberrations
C:-greater sensitivity of retinal photoreceptors to perpendicular rays rather than oblique rays
D:-higher refractive index of core of lens nucleus than peripheral cortex
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question10:-All the following statements regarding aqueous humour are true except
A:-The glucose content is approximately 80% of that of plasma
B:-The lactate concentration is twice that of plasma
C:-Aqueous has relatively low ascorbic acid content
D:-Active secretion accounts for the major fraction in aqueous secretion
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Regarding extra ocular movements – identify the false statement
A:-The primary action of inferior oblique is excyclotorsion
B:-The right inferior oblique & Left superior rectus are yoked muscles
C:-The primary action of superior oblique muscle is incyclotorsion
D:-The Right medial rectus & Left lateral rectus are antagonistic muscles
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question12:-The following charts are used in the testing of contrast sensitivity except
A:-Vistech chart
B:-Cambridge gratings
C:-Rosenbaums chart
D:-Regan charts
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question13:-In fourth nerve palsy
A:-Hyperdeviation increases on contralateral head tilt
B:-Microvascular occlusion is the most common cause
C:-Vertical fusion range more that 3D suggests congenital palsy
D:-Excyclotorsion less than 10 degrees suggest bilateral involvement
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question14:-In Electrophysiology, which of the following statement is true
A:-The EOG originates in the photoreceptors
B:-The a wave of ERG originates in muller cells
C:-Pattern ERG is a measure of ganglion cell function
D:-100% is an abnormal Arden ratio
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question15:-The Enhanced depth imaging modality in OCT is primarily useful in studying
A:-Inner retinal layers
B:-Outer retinal layers
C:-Choroid
D:-Middle retinal layers
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question16:-All of the following are true regarding the lacrimal drainage system except
A:-Positive Jones dye test implies physiological functioning of the system
B:-soft stop is characteristic of canalicular obstruction
C:-In lacrimal pump failure, Jones dye test is negative
D:-lipiodal is the agent used in scintillography
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question17:-Regarding Anisocoria,
A:-Increased anisocoria in dim light implies abnormality of the smaller pupil
B:-vermiform movements of pupil is seen in Horner’s syndrome
C:-Physiological anisocoria is seen in 10% of population
D:-In longstanding Adie’s pupil, the pupil appears to be larger in size
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-CT vesus MRI, All of the following are true except
A:-CT has faster image acquisition time
B:-CT shows artefacts from dental amalgam & bone
C:-MRI can display images in any anatomical plane
D:-In MRI, bright signal within vessel indicates blood flow
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Which of the following are true?
A:-Heroin causes mydriasis
B:-Botulinum toxin causes miosis
C:-Nicotine produces mydriasis
D:-Amphetamine causes miosis
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question20:-Results of streak retinoscopy performed on an adult patient at a testing distance of 67 cm is as follows: + 2D
sph neutralises reflex when streak is horizontal (180); + 3D sph neutralises reflex when streak is vertical (90). Which of the
following refraction is correct?
A:-+0.50 Dsph + 1 Dcyl 90 degrees
B:-+0.50 Dsph – 1 Dcyl 90 degrees
C:-+2.00 Dsph + 1 Dcyl 90 degrees
D:-+2.00 Dsph -1 Dcyl 90 degrees
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-Bruckner’s test is
A:-useful test to measure deviation in strabismus
B:-done using indirect ophthalmoscope
C:-used in screening of strabismus & anisometropia in infants
D:-difference in colour of fundal reflex more important than brightness
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question22:-Corneal wedge technique in gonioscopy is useful to identify
A:-schwalbe’s line
B:-anterior nonpigmented Trabeculum
C:-posterior pigmented Trabeculum
D:-scleral spur
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-The following statements are true regarding Brimonidine except
A:-selective alpha blocker
B:-follicular conjunctivitis
C:-hypotension
D:-apnoea
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterised by all except
A:-visual hallucinations
B:-severe visual impairment
C:-patients have insight into the nature of their illness
D:-patients often have associated neurological/psychiatric illness
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-Pick out the wrong drug composition of prostaglandin analogues
A:-Latanoprost 0.005%
B:-Bimatoprost 0.02%
C:-Travaprost 0.004%
D:-Brimonidine 0.15%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-Preperimetric diagnostic Tests in glaucoma include all except
A:-SWAP
B:-OCT
C:-Glaucoma hemifield Test
D:-scanning laser polarimeter
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question27:-Regarding Acanthamoeba, all are true except
A:-exists as active trophozoite or dormant cysts
B:-have been isolated from public water supplies & soil
C:-Neomycin is effective against both Trophozoite & cysts
D:-It is grown on non nutrient agar
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-Vancomycin
A:-Interferes with nucleic acid synthesis
B:-Is bactericidal against Gram negative bacteria
C:-Is poorly absorbed from gut
D:-Intravitreal dose is 400 μg/0.1ml
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-Statistical analysis in Octopus perimetry includes all except
A:-pattern standard deviation
B:-loss variance
C:-mean sensitivity
D:-bebie curve
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question30:-Properties of the drug Foscarnet includes all except
A:-It reversibly inhibits viral specific DNA polymerase & reverse transcriptase.
B:-It has an intrinsic anti HIV effect
C:-It is active against CMV virus
D:-Neutropenia is a common side effect
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question31:-Double circulation in FFA is seen in
A:-Retinal telangiectasia
B:-Choroidal melanoma
C:-Angioid streaks
D:-Retinoblastoma
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question32:-Glaucoma in angle recession is due to
A:-damage to Trabecular meshwork
B:-associated lens subluxation
C:-lridodialysis
D:-tears in the ciliary body
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-Optic nerve glioma is most frequently associated with
A:-Sturge – weber syndrome
B:-Neurofibromatosis Type 1
C:-Peters anomaly
D:-Neurofibromatosis Type 2
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Posner Schlossman syndrome is characterised by
A:-chronic low grade iritis
B:-extensive peripheral anterior synechiae
C:-stellatekeratic precipitates
D:-few aqueous cells & keraticprecipates
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question35:-The following statements are true about cilioretinal artery except
A:-cilioretinal artery is present in about 30% individuals
B:-cilioretinal artery occlusion may occur in combination with AION
C:-cilioretinal artery is a branch of ophthalmic artery
D:-cilioretinal artery occlusion may occur in combination with CRVO
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-Selective laser Trabeculoplasty is a good option in the treatment of
A:-Primary angle closure glaucoma
B:-Primary open angle glaucoma
C:-Angle recession glaucoma
D:-Congenital glaucoma
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-Minimal invasive glaucoma surgery includes all except
A:-Express shunt
B:-i stent
C:-AADI
D:-xen gel implant
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question38:-Congenital stationary night blindness is a feature of
A:-Lebers congenital amaurosis
B:-Fundus albipunctatus
C:-Usher syndrome
D:-Retinitis punctataalbescens
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question39:-The commonest type of intraocular tumour is
A:-melanoma
B:-retinoblastoma
C:-lymphoma
D:-metastatic neoplasm
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question40:-A 35 year old woman presents with an asymptomatic dome shaped orange mass in the midperipheral fundus
with overlying exudative retinal detachment. A scan USG shows high anterior spike with high internal reflectively. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A:-Posterior scleritis
B:-Choroidal metastasis
C:-Amelanotic choroidal melanoma
D:-Circumscribed choroidal hemangioma
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question41:-Which of the following neoplastic lesions of the conjunctiva is most likely to be associated with a systemic
neoplastic disease?
A:-Ocular surface squamous neoplasia
B:-Conjunctival papilloma
C:-Conjunctival lymphoma
D:-Conjunctival melanoma
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-Bull’s eye maculopathy is a feature of all except
A:-Cone dystrophy
B:-Stargardt’s disease
C:-Toxic maculopathy
D:-High myopia
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-In subluxated lenses, the following are true except
A:-inverse glaucoma is a feature of microspherophakia
B:-accommodation is lost in Homocystinuria
C:-Oil drop sign seen in anterior dislocation of clear lens
D:-subluxation is typically downward in Weil- Marchesani syndrome
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question44:-In corneal graft rejection, the following are true except
A:-risk of rejection is higher with large grafts
B:-small grafts give rise to astigmatism
C:-early graft failure (within first week) is mainly due to rejection
D:-lower risk of rejection in lamellar keratoplasty
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question45:-Recurrent corneal erosions is a feature of
A:-Macular dystrophy
B:-Cogans microcystic dystrophy
C:-Fuchs dystrophy
D:-Posterior polymorphous dystrophy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-The following are features of posterior sclerits except
A:-Proptosis
B:-choroidal folds
C:-Disc edema
D:-associated with Harada’s disease
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question47:-In Phacoemulsification, nucleus fracture techniques includes all except
A:-divide & conquer
B:-sandwich technique
C:-chip & flip technique
D:-chop technique
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Ocular manifestations of AIDS include all except
A:-Kaposi sarcoma
B:-retinal microangiopathy
C:-frosted branch angitis
D:-pars planitis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-Heterochromia lridis is seen is all except
A:-Horner’s syndrome
B:-ocular siderosis
C:-Fuchs uveitis syndrome
D:-multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-Features of occult globe rupture include all except
A:-Irregular, deep A C
B:-Hypotony
C:-Dense hemorrhagic chemosis
D:-Choroidal rupture
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question51:-The usual angle subtended by the visual axis and anatomical axis of the eye is
A:-0 degree
B:-5 degree
C:-10 degree
D:-15 degree
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-The superior rectus muscle is inserted ___ mm behind the superior limbus
A:-5.5 mm
B:-6.5 mm
C:-6.9 mm
D:-7.7 mm
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-The primary and secondary actions of superior rectus muscle are
A:-elevation, adduction and intorsion
B:-elevation, abduction and intorsion
C:-elevation, adduction and extorsion
D:-elevation, abduction and extorsion
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question54:-The angle subtended between the visual axis and the orbital axis when the eye looks straight ahead at a fixed
point is
A:-10 degree
B:-23 degree
C:-30 degree
D:-35 degree
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-The yoke muscle of left superior oblique is
A:-left inferior oblique
B:-right inferior oblique
C:-right inferior rectus
D:-left inferior rectus
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-In paretic squint
A:-secondary deviation is the same as primary deviation
B:-secondary deviation exceeds primary deviation
C:-secondary deviation is less than primary deviation
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-The following are tests for stereopsis EXCEPT
A:-TNO
B:-FRISBY
C:-TITMUS
D:-CARDIFF CARDS
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-During Hirschberg test, if the corneal light reflection is seen at the temporal border of a 4 mm size pupil the
angle of deviation of the eye is about
A:-5 degree
B:-15 degree
C:-30 degree
D:-45 degree
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question59:-The following statements about congenital / essential / infantile esotropia are true EXCEPT
A:-idiopathic condition with a small (<10 D) angle of deviation B:-develops within first 6 months of life C:-no significant refractive error D:-associated with limitation of ocular movements Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled Question60:-The following surgical procedure weakens the action of an extraocular muscle A:-resection B:-advancement of muscle nearer to the limbus C:-posterior fixation suture D:-tucking Correct Answer:- Option-C Question61:-The following statement regarding Treacher Collins syndrome is true EXCEPT A:-malformation of the derivatives of first and second branchial arches B:-associated with micrognatia and malformed ears C:-coloboma of upper eyelid D:-cataract Correct Answer:- Option-C Question62:-The following statement regarding capillary hemangioma is true A:-presents one year after birth B:-more common in females C:-seen more in lower eyelid D:-not associated with orbital extensions and visceral hemangiomas Correct Answer:- Option-B Question63:-Majority of the basal cell carcinoma lesions are seen in the A:-lower eyelid B:-medial canthus C:-upper eyelid D:-lateral canthus Correct Answer:- Option-A Question64:-The following statements are true about intradermal naevus EXCEPT A:-most common type of acquired melanocytic naevus B:-seen mainly in elderly patients C:-papillomatous lesion with only little pigmentation D:-has malignant potential Correct Answer:- Option-D Question65:-The most common primary orbital malignancy in children is A:-embryonal sarcoma B:-neuroblastoma C:-myeloid sarcoma D:-Langerhans cell granulomatosis Correct Answer:- Option-A Question66:-In preseptal cellulitis, the following finding is not seen A:-normal pupillary reaction B:-proptosis C:-no chemosis D:-normal ocular motility Correct Answer:- Option-B Question67:-The following features are seen in adult patients with idiopathic orbital inflammatory disease EXCEPT A:-bilateral periorbital swelling B:-radiotherapy may be considered if there is not improvement after 2 weeks of adequate steroid therapy. C:-severe prolonged inflammation can lead to a frozen orbit D:-spontaneous remission can occur in some cases Correct Answer:- Option-A Question68:-The characteristic S shaped ptosis is seen in A:-myasthenia gravis B:-injury to levator palpebrae superioris C:-acute dacryoadenitis D:-third carnial nerve palsy Correct Answer:- Option-C Question69:-The following structures pass through the superior orbital fissure EXCEPT A:-superior division of Oculomotor nerve B:-inferior division of Oculomotor nerve C:-superior Ophthalmic vein D:-inferior Ophthalmic vein Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled Question70:-Pseudo - enophthalmos is seen in A:-blow out fracture of orbital floor B:-atrophy of orbital contents following radiotherapy C:-metastatic schirrous carcinoma of orbit D:-microphthalmos Correct Answer:- Option-D Question71:-The most common tumour causing optico ciliary collaterals is A:-optic nerve sheath meningioma B:-optic nerve glioma C:-cavernous hemangioma D:-capillary hemangioma Correct Answer:- Option-A Question72:-The following statements are true about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT A:-smoking is a risk factor for developing thyroid eye disease B:-males are affected more than females C:-the disease is not related with the severity of thyroid dysfuction D:-radioactive iodine used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism can worsen the thyroid eye disease Correct Answer:- Option-B Question73:-The following findings are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT A:-acoustic neuroma B:-meningioma C:-optic nerve glioma D:-neurofibroma Correct Answer:- Option-A Question74:-A 10 years old girl presents to an eye hospital with anterior uveitis and polyarthritis. ANA test positive, Rheumatoid factor negative. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B:-Juvenile idiopathic arthritis C:-Systemic lupus erythematosus D:-Polyarteritis nodosa Correct Answer:- Option-B Question75:-A patient with giant cell arteritis can present with the following ocular findings EXCEPT A:-anterior ischemic optic neuropathy B:-central retinal artery occlusion C:-central retinal vein occlusion D:-diplopia Correct Answer:- Option-C Question76:-Marfan's syndrome patient can present with all the following EXCEPT A:-ectopia lentis B:-retinal detachment C:-hypermetropia D:-hypoplasia of dilator pupillae Correct Answer:- Option-C Question77:-A patient presents with fever, parotid gland enlargement, uveitis and facial cranial nerve palsy. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Mumps B:-Heerfordt syndrome C:-Multiple sclerosis D:-Reiter syndrome Correct Answer:- Option-B Question78:-The following are diagnostic criteria for Behcet syndrome EXCEPT A:-painful oral aphthous ulceration B:-arthritis C:-uveitis D:-erythema nodosum Correct Answer:- Option-B Question79:-The following is TRUE in myasthenia gravis A:-positive ice pack test B:-weakness of skeletal and cardiac muscles C:-affects males more than females D:-negative edrophonium test Correct Answer:- Option-A Question80:-The following features of vortex keratopathy are true EXCEPT A:-visual acuity is not affected by the corneal epithelial deposits in the visual axis B:-due to hydroxychloroquine has no relationship to the dosage and duration of treatment. C:-keratopathy due to amiodarone is related to the dose and duration of treatment D:-the keratopathy changes due to hydroxychloroquine are not usually reversible on cessation of treatment Correct Answer:- Option-D Question81:-The following statements regarding homocystinuria are true EXCEPT A:-enzyme cystathionine synthetase is deficient. B:-intravascular thrombosis can occur during general anesthesia C:-downward dislocation of lens is seen in some patients D:-autosomal dominant inheritance Correct Answer:- Option-D Question82:-In Trisomy 21 patients, the iris lesions are termed as A:-lisch nodules B:-brushfield spots C:-iris nevi D:-iris mammillations Correct Answer:- Option-B Question83:-The commonest cause of blindness in India is A:-diabetic retinopathy B:-glaucoma C:-age related macular degeneration D:-cataract Correct Answer:- Option-D Question84:-The National Program for Control of Blindness was launched in India in A:-1971 B:-1976 C:-1982 D:-1990 Correct Answer:- Option-B Question85:-The chairman of the District Blindness Control Society is A:-District Medical Officer B:-District Ophthalmic Surgeon C:-District Collector D:-District Programme Officer Correct Answer:- Option-C Question86:-The following diseases are being managed under vision 2020 EXCEPT A:-cataract B:-refractive errors C:-glaucoma D:-onchocerciasis Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled Question87:-At present in Kerala, the following activity is not carried out during an eye camp A:-screening for eye diseases B:-prescriptions of medicines C:-spectacle prescription D:-cataract surgery Correct Answer:- Option-D Question88:-After death, the donated eye should be removed within A:-two hours B:-six hours C:-twelve hours D:-twenty four hours Correct Answer:- Option-B Question89:-The main source of antigens for corneal allograft rejection is from A:-corneal epithelium` ` B:-bowman's membrane C:-corneal stromal tissue D:-corneal endothelium Correct Answer:- Option-D Question90:-Donor corneoscleral button can be preserved in McCarey Kaufman medium for A:-two days B:-four days C:-two weeks D:-two months Correct Answer:- Option-B Question91:-In severe Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, panretinal laser photocoagulation is first given to which part of the retina A:-superior B:-temporal C:-inferior D:-nasal Correct Answer:- Option-C Question92:-Spatulated surgical needles are used in the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-corneoscleral suturing B:-scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment C:-strabismus surgery D:-dacryocystorhinostomy Correct Answer:- Option-D Question93:-The Tooke corneal knife can be used in all the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-full thickness keratoplasty B:-trabeculectomy surgery C:-lamellar keratoplasty D:-pterygium surgery Correct Answer:- Option-A Question94:-The McPherson forceps should not be used for A:-tying 10.0 sutures B:-holding the intraocular lens during its implantation C:-holding the scleral tissue during sclerocorneal wound suturing D:-tearing the anterior capsule of the lens in cataract surgery Correct Answer:- Option-C Question95:-Compared to bupivacaine 0.5%, lignocaine 2% has A:-longer time for onset of action B:-longer duration of anaesthesia C:-longer duration of analgesia D:- none of the above Correct Answer:- Option-D Question96:-Wavelength of Nd Yag laser light is A:-193 nm B:-488 nm C:-532 nm D:-1064 nm Correct Answer:- Option-D Question97:-The following wavelength is not used during retinal laser treatment of macular lesions A:-488 nm B:-514 nm C:-532 nm D:-577 nm Correct Answer:- Option-A Question98:-Destruction of the pathogenic microorganisms and spores from surgical instruments is termed as A:-sterilisation B:-disinfection C:-decontamination D:-sanitization Correct Answer:- Option-A Question99:-The National Program for Control of Blindness aims at reducing the prevalence of blindness by 2020 to A:-0.1% B:-0.3% C:-0.5% D:-1% Correct Answer:- Option-B Question100:-Khodadoust line is seen in A:-keratoconus B:-pterygium C:-corneal graft rejection D:-siderosis Correct Answer:- Option-C